MCQ PG
MCQ s collection
Q. 1. ALL OR NONE EFFECTS OF TERATOGENICITY IS SEEN IN .......AGE OF GESTATION?
A. 1 - 3 WKS
B. 3 TO 8 WKS
C 8WKS TO 16 WKS
D 16 WKS ONWARD
Q.2.THE CRANIOCAUDAL ARRANGEMENT OF BODY PARTS IS MAINTAINED BY ........GENE
HOMEBOX GENE
FGF
SONIC HEDGEHOG GENE
WNT7 GENE
Q.3. DIABETIC GLOMERULOPATHY , ONE IS TRUE?
A NONENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
B ENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
C LEAST COMMON CAUSE OF CRF
D THINNING OF GBM.
Q.4.STONE ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASE PH IN URINE.
URIC ACID
CYSTINE
CALCIUM OXALATE
CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
Q.5.URIC ACID CRYSTAL IN URINE IN URIC ACID STONES ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE
Q.6.URIC ACID CRYSTALS IN GOUT ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE
Q.7. ONE OF FOLLOWING IS ASSOCIATED WITH WT2 MUTATION ?
WAGR COMPLEX
BECKWITH WEIDMAN SYNDROME
DENYS DRASCH SYNDROME
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
Q.8.SCHISTOSOMIASIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH....
SQ CELL CA OF BLADDER
TRANSITIONAL CELL CA OF BLADDER
ADENO A OF BLADDER
ALL
Q.9? RCC ARISES FROM
PCT CELLS
DCT CELLS
COLLECTING DUCT
LOOP OF HENLE
Q.10.BASKET WEAVING APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN ......IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
Q.11WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IS SEEN IN ...... IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : IMMUNOFLUROSCENCE
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
12.WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IN KIDNEY IS SEEN IN .......
ALPORT SYNDROME
SLE
PSGN
RHEUMATIC FEVER
13. FULL VISUAL ACUITY OBTAINED AT ...YRS.
8
4
2
6
14. THE TOTAL NUMBER OF CARDINAL POSITION OF GAZE ARE
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
15. ACCOMMODATION REFLEX FULLY DEVELOPED AT ....AGE .
A. 6 MONTHS
B. 12 MONTHS
C. 4 MONTHS
D. 8 MONTHS
16. MOST COMMMON SITE OF SALMONELLA OSTEOMYELITIS IN SICKLE CELL PATIENTS ?
DIAPHYSIS
METAPHYSIS
EPIPHYSIS
17. COLLECTING DUCT DERIVED FROM
MESONEPHROS
URETERIC BUD
METANEPHRIC MESENCHYME
UROGENITAL SINUS
18. DRUG ASSO WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA ? CEPHALOSPORIN MACROLIDES TETRACYCLINES SULPHONAMIDES
19. SEROTONIN SECRETED BY
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN CELL
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN LIKE CELL
PARIETAL CELL
D CELL
20. PARAMESONEPHRIC DUCT CONTRIBUTES TO
UPPER THIRD OF VAGINA
LOWER THIRD OF VAGINA
UPPER TWO THIRD
LOWER TWO THIRD
21. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HEPATITIS DOESN’T TRANSMIT SEXUALLY?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS E
D. HEPATITIS A AND E.
22.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF GULMINANT HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D
23. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CHRONICITY IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D
24. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CARRIER IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E
25. DENSE DEPOSIT DISEASE IS
A. TYPE 1 MPGN
B. TYPE 2MPGN
C. MESANGIOPROLIFERATIVE GN
D. CRESCENTIC GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
26. RISK OF TRANSMISSION TO FETUS IN HBSAG POSITIVE MOTHER WITH HBEAG POSITIVE STATUS IS ….
A. 20 PC
B. 90 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 50 PC
27. MOST COMMON PERINATAL TRANSMISSION IN VIRAL HEPATITIS IS
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E
28. FETAL MOVEMENT STARTS AT
A. 8 WKS
B. 6 WKS
C. 18 WKS
D. 16 WKS
29. WHICH IS NOT TRIAD OF CRS?
A. MENTAL RETARDATION
B. HEARING LOSS
C. HEART DEFECTS
D. CONGENITAL CATARACT
30. MEGALOCORNEA IS CORNEAL DIAMETER …..
A. MORE THAN 13MM
B. MORE THAN 11 MM
C. MORE THAN 15 MM
D. MORE THAN 8 MM
31.GENITAL STRUCTURES CAN BE IDENTIFIED AT
A. 7 WKS
B. 10 WKS
C. 12 WKS
D. 8 WKS
32. QUADRATE LOBE OF LIVER REPRESENTS ……..SEGMENT?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 1
33. THE KILLED VACCINE WHICH IS CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY?
A. RABIES
B. SALK
C. MENINGOCOCCAL
D. HEPATITIS B
34. THE LIVE VACCINE WHICH IS NOT CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY ?
A. RUBELLA
B. TYPHOID
C. YELLOW FEVER
D. MEASLES
35. THE ENDEMICITY OF MENINGOCOCCUS MENINGITIS IS ……..
A. 0.01 PC
B. 0.1PC
C. 1 PC
D. 0.5 PC
36.HCG INCREASES IN ………
A. DOWN SYNDROME
B. EDWARD SYNDROME
C. PATHAU SYNDROME
D ALL
37.THECA INTERNA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO ……
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE
38. GRANULOSA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE
39. TOUGHEST MUCOSA OF THE BODY IS …..
A. ESOPHAGUS
B. STOMACH
C. SMALL INTESTINE
D. COLON
40. WHICH ENTERS THROUGH VENACAVAL OPENING OF DIAPHRAGM ?
A. RIGHT PHRENIC NERVE
B. LEFT PHRENIC NERVE
C. RIGHT VAGUS NERVE
D. LEFT VAGUS NERVE
41. AORTIC ARCH IS DERIVED FROM ……PHARYNGEAL ARCH ?
A. FIRST
B. SECOND
C. THIRD
D. FOURTH
42. MOST SUSCEPTIBLE NERVE FIBRE AMONG FOLLOWING TO HYPOXIA IS ?
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. NONE
43.MAXIMUM WATER REABSORPTION IN KIDNEY OCCURS FROM …….?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. LOOP OF HENLE
44.THE MAJOR HORMONE PRODUCED BY PLACENTA ?
A. ESTRIOL
B. ESTRONE
C. ESTRADIOL
D. INSULIN GROWTH FACTOR
45. THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN IN POSTMENOPAUSAL WOMEN ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRADIOL
C. ESTRIOL
D. PROGESTERONE
46.THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN PRODUCED FROM OVARY IS ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRIOL
C. ESTRADIOL
D. ANDROSTENEDIONE
47. BOTH NUCLEAR AND CYTOPLASMIC INCLUSION BODIES ARE FOUND IN …..?
A. CMV
B. MEASLES
C. CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
D. ADENOVIRUS
48. PRIMARY OOCYTE IS ARRESTED IN ………STAGE ?
A. PROPHASE I OF MEIOSIS I
B. PROPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
C. METAPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
D. ANAPHASE OF MEIOSIS II
49. PEAK LEVEL OF HCG IN PREGNANCY IS ATTAINED AT……?
A. 8 TO 10 WKS
B. 6 TO 8 WKS
C. 10 TO 12 WKS
D. 12 TO 14 WKS
50. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING HAS GREATEST POTENCY?
A. DHT
B. TESTOSTERONE
C. ANDROSTENEDIONE
D. ALL EQUAL
51. RISK OF CHORIOCARCINOMA FOLLOWING COMPLETE MOLE IS …?
A. 2 PC
B. 4 PC
C. 8 PC
D. 15 PC
52. NEGRI BODIES ARE
A. INTRACYTOPLASMIC BASOPHILIC
B. INTRANUCLEAR EOSINOPHILIC
C. INTRACYTOPLASMIC EOSINOPHILIC
D. INTRANUCLEAR BASOPHILIC
53. CLINICAL INCUBATION PERIOD OF FILARIASIS IS
A. 8 TO 16 MONTHS
B. 6 TO 12 MONTHS
C. 3 TO 6 MONTHS
D. 1 TO 2 MONTHS
54.PROTOZOAN STAGE IN TRANSMISSION OF MALARIA VIA BLOOD TRANSFUSION IS
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. GAMETOCYTES
C. SPOROZOITE
D. MEROZOITE
55.CLINICAL SYMPTOMS CORRELATE WITH RELEASE OF ……..STAGE OF MALARIAL PARASITE IN BLOOD ?
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. SPOROZOITE
C. MEROZOITES
D. GAMETOCYTES
56.AN AREA IS DECLARED RABIES FREE IF
A. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 1 YR
B. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 2 YRS
C. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 5 YRS
D. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 4 YRS
57.APPARENT TO INAPPARENT CASES RATIO IN JE IS
A. 1:100 to 1:300
B. 1:300 TO 1:1000
C. 1:1000 TO 1: 2000
D. 1:50 to 1:100
58.CASE FATALITY RATE OF JE IS
A. 30 PC
B. 50 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 80 PC
59.PERCENTAGE OF CASES OF JE IN CHILDREN
A. 85
B. 60
C. 50
D. 95
60.CHOLESTEROL CRYSTAL ARE SEEN IN
A. EPENDYMOMA
B. MEDULLOBLASTOMA
C. CRANIPHARYNGIOMA
D. ASTROCYTOMA
61.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS?
A. S AUREUS
B. S EPIDERMIDIS
C. STREP VIRIDANS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
62.RENAL STONES ASSOCIATED WITH …..
A. PROXIMAL RTA
B. DISTAL RTA
C. HYPERKALEMIC RTA
D. NONE
63.BROCA’S AREA IS LOCATED IN
A. POSTERIOR SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
B. POSTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS
C. ANTERIOR SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
D. ANTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS
64.WHICH DOESN’T PASS THROUGH SINUS OF MORGAGNI ?
A. LEVATO VELLI PALATI
B. AUDITORY TUBE
C. ASCENDING PALATINE ARTERY
D. TENSOR VELLI PALATI
65.WHICH ONE IS NOT A BOUNDARY OF ANATOMICAL SNUFFBOX ?
A. EXTENSOR CARPI RADIALIS
B. ABDUCTOR POLLICIS LONGUS
C. EXTENSOR POLLICIS LONGUS
D. EXTENSOR POLLICIS BREVIS
66. DORELLOS CANAL ENCOMPASSES …..
A. ABDUCENS NERVE
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. TROCHLEAR
D. HYPOGLOSSAL
67. PERINEAL BODY IS FORMED BY ……MUSCLES.
A. 9
B. 6
C. 3
D. 8
68. RICKETSIAE PROWAZEKII IS CAUSATIVE AGENT OF
A. EPIDEMIC TYPHUS
B. ENDEMIC TYPHUS
C. INDIAN TICK TYPHUS
D. MURINE TYPHUS
69.RMSF IS CAUSED BY …..
A. R PROWAZEKKII
B. R. RICKETTSIA
C. R. TYPHI
D. RICKETTSIAE TSUSUGAMASHI
70. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL AFFERENT ?
A. OPTIC NERVE
B. OLFACTORY NERVE
C. TRIGEMINAL NERVE
D. ABDUCENS NERVE
71. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL EFFERENT ?
A. ABDUCENS
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. HYPOGLOSAAL
D. MANDIBULAR
72. DURING THYROIDECTOMY PROCEDURE ?
A. TRUE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
B. TRUE CAPSULE IS LEFT BEHIND
C. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
D. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS RETAINED
73. THE LATERAL ROTATOR OF SHOULDER IS
A. TERES MINOR
B. TERES MAJOR
C. SUBSCAPULARIS
D. NONE
74. MYELINATION IS COMPLETE BY THE AGE OF …….?
A. 5 YRS
B. 7 YRS
C. 10 YRS
D. 2 YRS
75. THE NUMBER OF ALVEOLI REACHES ADULT VALUE AT THE AGE OF ……?
A. 6 YRS
B. 4 YRS
C. 8 YRS
D. 10 YRS
76. THE CILIA TERMINATES IN …..
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
77. CILIATED CUBOIDAL EPITHELIUM IS FOUND IN ……
A. BRONCHI
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
78. SECOND WIND PHENOMENON IS SEEN IN ……
A. VON GIERKE DISEASE
B. MC ARDLE DISEASE
C CORI DISEASE
D POMPE DISEASE
79. MALLORY BODY IS
A. PRODUCT OF LYSOSOMAL DEGRADATION
B INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS
C FAT DROP,ETC IN HEPATOCYTES
D ALL
80. WHICH IS LEAST LIKELY IN PITUITARY ADENOMA ?
LACTOTROPH
SOMATOTROPH
CORTCOTROPH
THYROTROPHS
81. WHICH ONE HAS HIGH RISK OF OXALATE STONE ?
A. ENFLURANE
B. METHOXYFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. SEVOFLURANE
82. WHICH ONE IS SPORADIC CONGENITAL ?
A. STURGE WEBER SYNDROME
B. TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS
C. VON HIPPEL LINDAU
D. NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
83. PULMONARY ARTERIES DERIVED FROM ? ARCH .
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
84. LAST TO CANALIZE IN URINARY SYSTEM IS
A. URETEROPELVIC JUNCTION
B. LOWER URETER
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. CALYCES
85. WHICH ONE IS MATURE DEFENSE ?
A. SUPPRESSION
B. PROJECTION
C. RATIONALIZATION
D. DENIAL
86. CLARA CELLS ARE MAXIMUM IN
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
87. FACTOR VIII IS MARKER OF
A. ANGIOSARCOMA
B. RHABDOMYOSARCOMA
C. HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA
D. MELANOMA
88. SIADH CAUSING ANTIEPILEPTIC?
A. CARBAMAZEPINE
B. VALPROATE
C. TIAGABINE
D. LAMOTRIGINE
89. SYRINGOMYELIA IS MOST COMMON AT ......
A. C5 C6
B. C6 C7
C. C7 C8
D. C8 T1
90. LESION OF OPTIC CHIASMA CAUSES
A. BITEMPORAL HETERONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
B. BITEMPORAL HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
C. LEFT NASAL HEMIANOPIA
D. RIGHT NASAL HEMIANOPIA
91. CORTICOSPINAL TRACT ARISES FROM ?
A. EXTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER
B. INTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
C. EXTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
D. INTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER
92. AICA LESION , NOT TRUE IS
A. VOMITING
B. DROOPING OF ANGLE OF MOUTH
C. DYSPHAGIA
D. HORNER SYNDROME
93. WALLENBERG SYNDROME IS DUE TO LESION IN
A. AICA
B. PICA
C. ANTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY
D. BASILAR ARTERY
94. SLAP CHEEK APPEARANCE IS IN
A. FIRST DZ
B. THIRD
C. FIFTH
D. SIXTH
95. FIRST SYMPTOM OF SYMPATHETIC OPTHALMITIS ?
A. NEAR ACCOMMODATION DIFFICULT
B. PHOTOPHOBIA
C. LACRIMATION
D. PAIN
96. WHITE UVEITIS SEEN IN
A. AS
B. JRA
C. SARCOIDOSIS
D. NONE
97. LUNG METS IN CHORIOCARCINOMA IMPLIES STAGE
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
98. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO PCO2 TILL ……..mmHg
A. 90
B. 80
C. 100
D. 70
99. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO HYPOXIA WHEN PO2 IS LESS THAN ………mmHg .
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 40
100. NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS IN SCHIZOPHRENIA ARE MEDIATED IN
A. MESOCORTICAL PATHWAY
B. MESOLIMBIC
C. NIGROSTRIATAL
D. TUBEROINFUNDIBULAR
101. HUNTINGTON CHOREA
A MORE DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
B LESS DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
C LESS ACH , MORE DOPAMINE, LESS GABA
D LESS DOPAMINE LESS ACH LESS GABA
102. PAIN TEMPERATURE RELAYS TO ...........OF THALAMUS.
A. VPML
B. VPLN
C. MEDIAL GENICULATE BODY
D. NONE
103. DURA IS DERIVED FROM
A. NEURAL CREST
B. NEUROECTODERM
C. MESODERM
D. ENDODERM
104. NONDESTRUCTIVE VEGETATION IN HEART VALVES IS SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B SLE
C BOTH
D RHEUMATIC FEVER
105. MURAL INVOLVEMENT IS MOSTLY SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B NBTE
C RHEUMATIC FEVER
D LIBMAN SACK ENDOCARDITIS
106. CARCINOID SYNDROME IS ASSO WITH
A. TR
B. TS
C. AR
D. MS
107. WHICH IS MITOCHONDRIAL ENZYME?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. GGT
D. ALP
108. LONG STANDING MULTINODULAR GOITER , WHICH IS COMMON
A. PAPILLARY
B. FOLLICULAR
C. ANAPLASTIC
D. MEDULLARY
109. FALSE ABOUT POLYMYALGIA RHEUMATICA IS
A. RAISED ESR
B. RAISED CRP
C. RAISED CK
D. NORMAL CK
110. WHICH IS A PROGNOSTIC MARKER OF SLE ?
A. ANTI ANA
B. ANTI DSDNA
C. ANTI SMITH
D. ANTI HISTONE
111. EWING SARCOMA TRANSLOCATION IS
A. 9 22
B. 11 22
C. 8 22
D. 15 17
112. CORRECT SEQUENCE IN HB ELECTROPHORESIS.
A. HBA HBF HBS HBC
B. HBA HBS HBF HBC
C. HBC HBF HBS HBA
D. HBA HBC HBS HBF
113. HBH IS
DELETION OF
A. 1 ALPHA
B. 2 ALPHA
C. 3 ALPHA
D. 4 ALPHA
114. HBC IS
SUBSTITUTION OF GLUTAMIC ACID BY
A LEUCINE
B LYSINE
C VALINE
D THREONINE
115. WHICH IS NOT CAUSE OF MICROANGIPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA . ?
A SLE
B TTP
C DIC
D PROSTHETIC CARDIAC VALVES
116. RINGED SIDEROBLAST IS SEEN IN
BONE MARROW
LIVER
SPLEEN
PERIPHERAL SMEAR
117. DEGMACYTE SEEN IN
G6PD DEF
LIVER DZ
END STAGE RENAL DZ
THALASSEMIA
118. BONE MARROW ERYTHROPOIESIS STARSTS FROM ....
10 WKS
18 WKS
32 WKS
6 WKS
119. WHICH IS SECRETED BY DENSE GRANULES OF PLATELET ?
ADP
FIBRINOGEN
FIBRONECTIN
VWF
120. LIPID A OF LPS OF BACTERIA BINDS WITH .......ON MACROPHAGE.
A. CD 14
B. CD 28
C. CD 4
D. CD 8
121. CLOCK FACE CHROMATIN WITH ECCENTRIC NUCLEUS SEEN IN
A. PLASMA CELL
B. NEUTROPHIL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. MACROPHAGE
122. FROSTED GLASS CYTOPLASM SEEN IN
A. NEUTROPHIL
B. MONOCYTES
C. EOSINOPHIL
D. BASOPHIL
123. PULMONARY ARTERIAL HTN IS ASSOCIATED WITH …..?
A. BMPR2
B. BETA CATENIN
C. HOMEBOX GENE
D. P53
124. THE SEQUENCE IN NATURAL HISTORY OF PNEUMONIA ?
A. CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
B. CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
C RED HEPATIZATION CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
D GRAY HEPATIZATION CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
125. WHICH ONE AFFECTS LOWER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. ASBESTOSIS
B . SILICOSIS
C. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS
D. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
126. WHICH ONE AFFECTS UPPER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C BERYLLIOSIS
D . B AND C
127. WHICH ONE IS RELATED TO SMOKING ?
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C. MESOTHELIOMA
D. ADENOCARCINOMA LUNG
128. SMOKING IS NOT A RISK FACTOR IN ….
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. MESOTHELIOMA
C SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
D OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA
129. ASBESTOSIS IS MORE OFTEN ASSOCIATED WITH …?
A. MESOTHELIOMA
B. BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA
C. TUBERCULOSIS
D. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
130. IVORY WHITE CALCIFIED PLEURAL PLAQUES ABOVE THE DIAPHRAGM IS SEEN IN ……
A. ASBESTOSIS
B. SILICOSIS
C. BERYLLIOSIS
D. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS
131. THE BEST PROGNOSIS IN LUNG CA IS IN
A SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B ADENO CA
C BRONCHIAL CARCINOID
D SMALL CELL CA
132. LUNG CA WITH LEAST METASTASIS ?
A. LARGE CELL CA
B. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
C. SMALL CELL CA
D BRONCHIAL CARCINOID
133. WHICH ONE IS PERIPHERAL IN LOCATION ?
A. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B. ADENO CARCINOMA
C. LARGE CELL CARCINOMA
D. B AND C
134. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN ARE
A. NONAPEPTIDE
B DECAPEPTIDE
C PENTAPEPTIDE
D TETRA PEPTIDE
135. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN DIFFERS IN AMINO ACID IN ……….
A. POSITION 3 AND 8
B POSITION 2 AND 6
C POSITION 3 AND 6
D POSITION 4 AND 8
136. MAXIMUM K CONCENTRATION IS FOUND IN ……
A. COLONIC FLUID
B SALIVA
C GASTRIC JUICE
D PANCREATIC JUICE
138. MAXIMUM POTASSIUM SECRETION IS FOUND IN ….
A. SALIVA
B. PANCREATIC JUICE
C. COLONIC FLUID
D GASTRIC JUICE
139. MAXIMUM OXYGEN CONSUMPTION IN BODY AFTER LIVER IS BY ?
A. KIDNEY
B HEART
C SKELETAL MUSCLE
D BRAIN
140 HISTONE SYNTHESIS OCCURS IN ……
A. G2 PHASE
B. S PHASE
C. G1 PHASE
D. M PHASE
141. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCESS MAKES DNA ACTIVE ?
A. DNA METHYLATION
B. DNA ACETYLATION
C. HISTONE METHYLATION
D. ALL
142. . HISTONES CONTAIN ………AMINOACID ?
A. LYSINE
B .ARGININE
C BOTH
D HISTIDINE
143. RIBAVIRIN ACTS ON ……
A. IMP DEHYDROGENASE
B. DHF REDUCTASE
C. PRPP SYNTHETASE
D. DIHYDROOROTATE DEHYDROGENASE
144. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISRUPTS BOTH PURINE AND PYRIMIDINE SYNTHESIS ?
A. MYCOPHENOLATE MOFETIL
B. HYDROXYUREA
C. FLUROURACIL
D. LEFLUNOMIDE
145. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING AA HAS SINGLE CODON ?
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. LEUCINE
C. GLYCINE
D. LYSINE
146. WHICH ENZYME JOINS OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS DURING DNA REPLICATION ?
A. DNA LIGASE
B. DNA POLYMERASE I
C. DNA POLYMERASE III
D. DNA TOPOISOMERASE I
147. DUCHENNES MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY AND TAY SACHS DISEASE ARE GOOD EXAMPLES OF …… …..?
A. POINT MISSENSE MUTATION
B FRAMESHIFT MUTATION
C. NONSENSE MUTATION
D. SPLICE SITE MUTATION
148. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR OCCURS IN …….PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
149. LYNCH SYNDROME IS THE RESULT OF DEFECTIVE ……?
A. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR
B. BASE EXCISION REPAIR
C. MISMATCH REPAIR
D. ALL OF ABOVE
150. SHORTEST PHASE OF CELL CYCLE IS ….?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
151. RBCS ARE IN ………..PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. G0
152. OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA HAS MOST COMMONLY AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT FORM INHERITANCE WITH ……..
A. DEFECTIVE TYPE 1 COLLAGEN.
B. DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
C. DEFECTIVE TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
D. BOTH DEFECTIVE AND DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
153. MENKE DISEASE IS DUE TO DEFECT IN ……
A. ATP7A
B. ATP7B
C. BOTH
D. COL5A1
154. THE ROLE OF USE OF AZITHROMYCIN IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS IS ….
A. ANTIBACTERIAL
B. ANTI INFLAMMATORY
C. NO ROLE IN THE DISEASE
D. PROPHYLACTIC ROLE
155. WHICH AGENT SLOWS THE DISEASE PROGRESSION IN CF ?
A. IBUPROFEN
B. AZITHROMYCIN
C. HYPERTONIC SALINE NEBULISATION
D. CHEST PHYSIOTHERAPY
156. HEMOCHROMATOSIS IS A CONDITION OF ……..INHERITANCE ?
A. AD
B AR
C X-R
D XD
157. ARRANGE THE AUTOSOMAL TRISOMIES IN ORDER OF DECREASING INCIDENCE .?
A. DOWN EDWARD PATAU
B. DOWN PATAU EDWARD
C. EDWARD PATAU DOWN
D. PATAU EDWARD DOWN
158. QUAD SCREEN IN SECOND TRIMESTER IN EDWARD SYNDROME DIFFERS FROM DOWN SYNDROME IN …..
A. DECREASED BETA HCG
B. INCREASED AFP
C INCREASED ESTRIOL
D INCREASED INHIBIN A
159. VITAMIN THAT CAN BE USED FOR TREATMENT OF ANXIETY AND DEPRESSION ?
A. VIT B1
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B9
D. VIT B12
160. VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH PHOTOTHERAPY PROCEDURE IN INFANTS IS ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. FOLIC ACID
D. VIT B6
161. NIACIN OVERDOSE CAUSES FLUSHING IN FACE. THE FLUSHING CAN BE AVOIDED BY ……..
A. ASPIRIN
B. CHLORPHENIRAMINE
C. PHENYLEPHRINE
D. RANITIDINE
162. WHICH VITAMIN CONSUMPTION MAY NEED CAUTIOUS RESTRICTION IN HEREDITARY HEMOCHROMATOSIS?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN C
C. VITAMIN K
D. VITAMIN B9
163. PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI IS ASSOCIATED WITH ……….VITAMIN ?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN D
C. VITAMIN E
D. VITAMIN K
164. THE EXCESS INTAKE OF ………..CAN LEAD TO NEPHROLITIASIS ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B1
D. VIT A
165. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING VITAMIN IS USEFUL IN TREATMENT OF METHEMOGLOBINEMIA ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B2
C. VIT E
D. NONE
166. DISULFIRAM ACTS ON ………..ENZYME IN………?
A. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL
B. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
C. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
D. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL
167. WHICH METABOLIC PROCESS OCCURS IN MITOCHONDRIA?
A. FA SYNTHESIS
B. KETOGENESIS
C. GLYCOLYSIS
D. HMP SHUNT PATHWAY
168. THE AGENT USED IN METHANOL POISONING IS ….
A. FOMEPIZOLE
B. NALTREXONE
C. NALEMFINE
D. FLUMAZENIL
169. LIPID LADEN MACROPHAGES WITH CRUMPLED TISSUE PAPER APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN …..
A. GAUCHER DISEASE
B. TAYSACH DISEASE
C. NIEMAN PICK DISEASE
D. HURLER SYNDROME
170. MOST COMMON ORGANISM RETRIEVED IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS PATIENT FROM AIRWAY TRACT IN CHILDREN IS ……..
A. S AUREUS
B. PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA
C. HEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE
D. BURKHOLDERIA CEPACIA
171. GARGOYLISM IS TYPICALLY SEEN IN ….
A. HURLER SYNDROME
B. WILLIAMS SYNDROME
C. CRI DU CHAT SYNDROME
D. ANGELMAN SYNDROME
172. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS ON NMDA RECEPTOR.?
A. DEXTROMETHORPHAN
B. KETAMINE
C. A AND B
D KETOTIFEN
173. MEPERIDINE INDUCED SEIZURE CAN BE TREATED WITH ……..
A. NALOXONE
B. DIAZEPAM
C. BOTH
D. NALTREXONE
174. WHICH INCREASES THE DURATION OF CHLORIDE CHANNEL OPENING FOR ITS ACTION ?
A. BENZODIAZEPINES
B. BARBITURATES
C. OPIOIDS
D. GABAPENTIN
175. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SEDATIVE HYPNOTIC DRUG REACHES PLATEAU IN CNS DEPRESSION ?
A. ALCOHOL
B. BARBITURATES
C. BENZODIAZEPINES
D. ALL
176. BACLOFEN ACTS ON …
A. GABAA RECEPTOR
B. GABAB RECEPTOR
C. BOTH
D. MA RECEPTOR
177. BENZODIAZEPINES ACT VIA
A. PROLONGING DURATION OF CL CHANNEL OPENING
B. INACTIVATING ACTIVATED NA CHANNEL
C. INCREASES THE FREQUENCY OF CL CHANNEL OPENING
D. INACTIVATING THE T TYPE CALCIUM CHANNEL
178. CYANIDE ACTS ON ………COMPLEX IN ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN.
A. COMPLEX 1
B. COMPLEX 2
C. COMPLEX 3
D. COMPLEX 4
179. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH PAN ?
A. HEP A
B. HEP B
C. HEP C
D. HEP D
180. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH METABOLIC SYNDROME ?
A. HEP E
B. HEP C
C. HEP B
D. HEP A
181. WHICH ZONE OF LIVER MOSTLY CONCERNS DETOXIFICATION AND LIPID METABOLISM ?
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. ALL EQUALLY
182. THE CELLS INVOLVED IN SCARRING OF THE LIVER IN CHRONIC CIRRHOSIS ARE STELLATE CELLS. THESE CELLS RENDER SUCH EFFECT DUE TO RELEASE OF ………..
A. TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
B. TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
C. TYPE 3 COLLAGEN
D. TYPE 4 COLLAGEN
183. THE ARTERY FROM AORTA THAT SUPPLIES ADRENAL GLAND IS …….
A. SUPERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
B. MIDDLE SUPRARENAL ARTERY
C. INFERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
D. ALL
184. FUNDUS OF STOMACH IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. SHORT GASTRIC ARTERIES
B. LEFT GASTRIC ARTERY
C. RIGHT GASTRIC ARTERY
D. LEFT GASTROEPIPLOIC ARTERY
185. MELATONIN IS PRODUCED FROM ……
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. TYROSINE
C. PHENYLALANINE
D. PHENYLALANINE
186. CORTISOL ENHANCES THE ACTIVITY OF ……….ENZYME IN TYROSINE METABOLISM ?
A. TYROSINE HYDROXYLASE
B. DOPA DECARBOXYLASE
C. PNMT
D. DOPAMINE BETA HYDROXYLASE
187. DOPAMINE IS CONVERTED TO NOREPINEPHRINE BY ACTION OF DOPAMINE BETAHYDROXYLASE IN PRESENCE OF PRIMARILY ………………AS A COFACTOR.
A. PLP
B. VIT C
C. METHYLCOBALAMIN
D. TETRAHYDROBIOPTERIN
188. PRECURSOR OF CATECHOLAMINE IS ……
A. PHENYLALANINE
B. TYROSINE
C. BOTH A AND B
D. TRYPTOPHAN
189. YELLOW FEVER VIRUS IS SEEN TO HAVE TYPICALLY NECROSIS IN ………….OF LIVER.
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. NONE
190. THE TIME OF SCREENING OF PHENYLKETONURIA IN NEWBORN IS ……..
A. 12 HRS
B. 24 HRS
C. 48 HRS
D. IMMEDIATELY AFTER BIRTH
191. TRUE REGARDING GLYCOGEN METABOLISM IS …….
A. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
B. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS INACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATED STATE
C. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
D. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS INACTIVE IN PHOSPHORYLATION STATE
192. HYPOKETOTIC HYPOGLYCEMIA IS SEEN IN ………
A. INSULIN DEFICIENCY
B. CARNITINE DEFICIENCY
C. STARVATION
D. INSULINOMA
193. URINE FOR KETONE BODIES DETECT …………
A. ACETOACETATE
B. ACETONE
C. BETA HYDROXYBUTYRATE
D. A AND C
194. APO E IS NOT PRESENT IN …….
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. CHYLOMICRON
D. CHYLOMICRON REMNANT
195. APOB48 IS PRESENT IN
A. CHYLOMICRON
B. VLDL
C. HDL
D. LDL
196. THE APOLIPOPROTEIN PRESENT IN LDL
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO CII
D. APO E
197. THE APO LIPOPROTEIN NOT PRESENT IN CHYLOMICRON IS ….
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO E
D. APO CII
198. ABETALIPOPROTEINEMIA IS AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE CONDITION WHICH OCCURS DUE TO DEFECT IN APOB48 AND APO B100. THE TREATMENT OF THIS CONDITION IS …
A. VIT E
B. RESTRICTION OF MEDIUM CHAIN FATTY ACIDS
C. ANTIBIOTICS
D. ALL
199. THERE IS NO INCREASED RISK OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS IN ONE OF THE FOLLOWING FAMILIAL DYSLIPIDEMIA . THIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH DEFICIENCY OF APO CII APO LIPOPROTEIN IN THIS DISORDER.
A. TYPE 1 HYPERCHYLOMICRONEMIA
B. TYPE 2 FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA
C. TYPE 3 DYSBETALIPOPROTEINEMIA
D. TYPE 4 HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA
200. THE EXTENSOR OF HIP IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. INFERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
B. SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
C. OBTURATOR NERVE
D. FEMORAL NERVE
201. FALSE IN COCHLEA IS
A. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE MORE ABUNDANT THAN INNER HAIR CELLS.
B. INNER HAIR CELLS ARE RESISTANT TO TOXIC DRUGS AND NOISE THAN OUTER HAIR CELLS
C. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE PRIMARILY EFFERENT AND INNER HAIR CELLS ARE AFFERENT
D. OUTER HAIR CELLS TRANSMIT AUDITORY STIMULI
202. FALSE IS
A. LABYRINTHINE ARTERY IS A BRANCH OF AICA
B. THERE IS NO CROSS CIRCULATION BETWEEN MIDDLE EAR AND INNER EAR BLOOD SUPPLY.
C. THE BLOOD SUPPLY TO INNER EAR IS SEGMENTAL SUCH THAT ISCHEMIC LESION CAN AFFECT VESTIBULAR AND COCHLEAR SYSTEM IN ISOLATION.
D. ALL FALSE
203. CADAVERIC POSITION OF VOCAL CORD IS ….
A. MEDIAN
B INTERMEDIATE
C. PARAMEDIAN
D. FULL ABDUCTED
204. AMOUNT OF FIXATIVE FOR TISSUE FIXATION IS
A. 10 TIMES
B. 20 TIMES
C. SAME VOLUME AS TISSUE
D. 40 TIMES
205. THE MOST RELIABLE BACTERIAL INDICATOR OF WATER POLLUTION IS ….
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
206. THE BACTERIAL INDICATING THE RECENT CONTAMINATION OF WATER .
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
207. KYOTO PROTOCOL IS RELATED TO …..
A. GLOBAL WARMING
B. ECONOMIC CRISIS
C. DISASTER MANAGEMENT
D. EPIDEMICS MANAGEMENT
208. BEST INDICATOR OF AIR POLLUTION
A. SO2
B CO
C. CO2
D. METHANE
209. THE LONGEST EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLE IS
A. SR
B. SO
C. IR
D. LR
210. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INSECT REPELLANT ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. VIT E
D. VIT C
211. A CLINICIAN PERFORMS TRENDELENBERG TEST ON A PATIENT, AND HE FOUND THAT THE PATIENT’S PELVIS SWAYED OR DROOPED ON THE RIGHT SIDE WHILE ATTEMPTING TO RAISE THE RIGHT SIDED PELVIS . THIS SUGGESTS THE CLINICIAN THAT
A. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS ARE PARALYZED ON THE RIGHT SIDE .
B. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS ARE PARALYZED ON LEFT THE LEFT SIDE.
C. THE RIGHT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED
D. THE LEFT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED.
212. THE MAXIMUM CONTRIBUTION TO GREEN HOUSE GASES IS BY
A. CO2
B. WATER VAPOR
C. CO
D SO2
213. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IS BRANCH OF ……
A. INTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
B. DEEP EXTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. EXTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
D. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
214. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IN FEMALE REPLACES ……….ARTERY OF MALE ?
A. INFERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
B. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. SUPERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
D. INFERIOR GLUTEAL ARTERY
215. BONY PERFORATION OF NASAL SEPTUM IS A FEATURE OF ….
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. LUPUS VULGARIS
D. SARCOIDOSIS
216. TOTAL NASAL SEPTAL DESTRUCTION IS SEEN IN ………
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. WERNER’S GRANULOMATOSIS
D. TB
217. AUDITORY FATIGUE OCCURS AT ….
A. 90 DB
B. 70 DB
C 120DB
D 160 DB
218. THE ANAESTHETIC AGENT MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR GREEN HOUSE GASES IS ………..
A. DESFLURANE
B. ENFLURANE
C. METHOXYFLURANE
D. ISOFLURANE
219. THE FASTEST ONSET OF ACTION AMONG THE FOLLOWING IS WITH ……….
A. DESFLURANE
B. SEVOFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. ENFLURANE
220. ANAESTHETIC AGENT ASSOCIATED WITH POSTOPERATIVE CHEST TIGHTNESS ?
A. PROPOFOL
B. FENTANYL
C. THIOPENTONE
D. KETAMINE
221. TRUE IS
A. B CELL SELECTION IS ORCHESTRATED IN THYMUS
B. T CELL UNDERGO NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMIC CORTEX
C. T CELLS UNDERGO BOTH POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMUS.
D. THYMIC MEDULLA SERVES TO POSITIVE SELECTION OF T CELLS.
222. THE ACUTE PHASE REACTANT THAT DECREASES IN SERUM CONCENTRATION IS RESPONSE TO INFLAMMATION ?
A. TRANSFERRIN
B. HEPCIDIN
C. FERRITIN
D. CRP
223. THE SPECIFIC COMPLEMENT ASSOCIATED WITH NEISSERIA GONORRHOEA INFECTION ?
A. C3
B. C1
C. C2
D. C5
224. THE ANTI INFLAMMATORY CYTOKINE IS….
A. INTERLEUKIN 10
B. INTERLEUKIN 2
C. INTERLEUKIN 6
D. INTERLEUKIN 4
225. FEBRILE NON HEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION IS ……HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION ?
A. TYPE 1
B. TYPE 2
C. TYPE 3
D. TYPE 4
226. The pore size in a bed net should be …..
A. 0.0475 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 0.2 inch
D. 0.002 inch
227. The muscle occupying the greater sciatic foramen is ……
A. Pyriformis
B. Gemelli
C. Gluteus Maximus
D. Obturator internus
228. The muscle occupying the lesser sciatic foramen is ….
A. Pyriformis
B. Obturator internus
C. Gemelli
D. None
229. One of the following structure doesn’t pass through lesser sciatic foramen ?
A. Obturator internus muscle
B. Internal pudendal vessels
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Gemelli
230. Narrowest part in middle ear cavity is
A. Epitympanum or attic
B. Mesotympanum
C. Hypotympanum
231. Crippling fluorosis is highly likely when fluoride concentration in drinking water exceeds ……..ppm.
A. 10
B. 6
C. 15
D. 2
232. Temporary hardness of water is due to ….
A. Bicarbonate salts
B. Sulphate and chlorides
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Hydroxides
233 True about iron deficiency anemia ?
A. TIBC increases
B. Transferrin increases
C. A and B
D. MCV increases
234. The enteroviral encephalitis is primarily seen in ……..
A. B cell deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Complement deficiency
235. A T cell disorder associated with conotruncal defects, Tetany, and recurrent fungal and viral infections is suggestive of …….
A. Di George syndrome
B. Job syndrome
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
236. Cold staphylococcal abscesses are often seen in …..
A. Autosomal dominant hyper IgE syndrome
B. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
C. Complement deficiency
D. Chronic granulomatous disease
237. Increased susceptibility to giardiasis is more often seen in ………
A. Complement deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. IgA deficiency
D. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
238. Condition specific to transplant rejection in liver is ………
A. Vanishing bile duct syndrome
B. Portal vein thrombosis
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Jaundice
239. False about immunosuppressant is ……
A. Sirolimus is not nephrotoxic .
B. Tacrolimus doesn’t cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism.
C. Mycophenolate mofetil is irreversible inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase.
D. Azathiopurine and allopurinol combination is an irrationals combination of treatment
240. Monoclonal Antibody used in refractory allergic asthma is
A. Omalizumab
B. Palivizumab
C. Abciximab
D. Eculizumab
241. Hook effect is seen in
A. Brucellosis
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Tularemia
242. Prozone phenomena results in false negative result owing to
A. Antigen is present in excess of antibody
B. Antibody is present in excess of antigens
C. Antigen and antibody are present in equal proportions
D. Antigen antibody interactions disturbed by the complements
243. Milk ring test is related to ….
A. Brucellosis
B. Tb
C. Salmonella
D. Bacteroides
244. R. Q of carbohydrate is ……
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 2
245. Commonest malignancy of eyelid is ….
A. Squamous cell ca
B. Nasal cell ca
C. Melanoma
D. Sarcoma
246. The lacrimal glands receive the innervation for lacrimation from ……
A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus
247. Average number of mites present on the body of a person suffering from scabies is ..
A. 5 -10
B. 10 -15
C. 15 -20
D. 50 -60
248. Cigar shaped eggs are seen in
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonia
249. Diabetes mellitus is not seen in ….
A. Friedrich ataxia
B. Ataxia telengiectasia
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Hemochromatosis
250. The tensor tympani attaches to ……
A. Neck of malleus
B. Handle of malleus
C. Head of stapes
D. Head of malleus
251. Part that doesn’t define incus is …..
A. Head
B. Body
C. Long process
D. Short process
252. Branch from first part of axillary artery ?
A. Superior thoracic artery
B. Lateral thoracic artery
C. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
D. Posterior circumflex humoral artery
253. Posterior fold of axillary is formed by all except
A. Lattismus dorsi
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres major
D. Pectoralis major
254. One of the following structures don’t pierce clavipectoral fascia ….
A. Thoracoaromial vessels
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Lateral pectoral nerve
D. Cephalic vein
255.Popliteal fossa is bounded laterally by ………
A. Biceps femori
B. Semimembranosus
C. Gracilis
D. Semitendinosus
256. Cubital fossa is bounded medially by …….
A. Pronator teres
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Brachialis
257. Supinator is pierced by …..
A. Anterior interosseous nerve
B. Posterior interosseous nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve
258. Live nonattenuated vaccine is …..
A. Adenovirus vaccine
B. Oral Ty21A
C. BCG
D. 17 D
259. False regarding Botulism in infants is ……
A. Performed toxin ingestion is responsible
B. Commonly seen with honey consumption
C. Causes floppy baby syndrome
D. The toxins implicated are heat labile
260. Gastric gland secretions increased primarily via
A. M1 receptor
B. M2 receptor
C. M3 receptor
D. Beta 3 receptor
261. Lipid soluble beta blocker is
A. Propranolol
B. Sotalol
C. Atenolol
D. Bisoprolol
262. The beta blocker with more first pass metabolism ?
A. Atenolol
B. Bisoprolol
C. Sotalol
D. Metoprolol
263. Epidemic typhus is caused by ……….
A. R. Prowazekii
B. Ricketsia typhi
C. Ricketsia ricketsia
D. Ricketsia conori
264. Pneumoconiosis takes …….years of occupational exposure .
A. 10 yrs
B. 5 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 8 yrs
265. Value of normal TIBC is ….
A. 200 mcgdl
B. 300mcgdl
C. 400 mcgdl
D. 150mcgdl
266 Residual chlorine required in swimming pool water is ……
A. 1ppm
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.4ppm
277 Residual chlorine required in daily water use in post disaster period is …
A. 1ppm
B. 2ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.5 ppm
278 Monday fever is seen in ………
A. Bagassosis
B. Bysinnosis
C. Silicosis
D. Asbestosis
279 Ratio of Rods to cones in retina is …..
A. 20 :1
B. 30:1
C. 10:1
D. 40:1
280. Muller cell is found in …..
A. Retina
B. Pancreas
C. Knee joint
D. Inner ear
281 All cells in cerebellum are inhibitory in nature except for
A. Granule cell to purkinje cell
B. Basket cell to purkinje cell
C. Granule cell
D. Purkinje cell to basket cell
282 Gait ataxia in alchoholics is seen due to damage in …..
A. Anterior vermis of cerebellum
B. Posterior vermis of cerebellum
C. Lateral cerebellum
D. Flocconodular lobe
283 coronory sinus is derived from …
A. Left horn of sinus venosus
B. Right horn of sinus venosus
C. Right common cardinal vein
D. Right anterior cardinal vein
284. Tree bark appearance of aorta is seen in …….
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Syphilis
C. Ehler Danlos syndrome
D. Aortic aneurysms rupture
286. Traumatic rupture of aorta is most common at ……
A. Distal to left subclavian artery origin
B. Ascending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Proximal to left subclavian artery origin
287. The automaticity of SA nodal cells depend on …….of action potential?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 4
D. Phase 2 and 3
288. The depolarization in SA node is due to ……
A. Voltage gated calcium channel
B. Voltage gated sodium channel
C. Voltage gated potassium channel
D. Both sodium and calcium channels
289. The maximum oxygen consumption in heart is during …
A. Isovolumetric relaxation
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Rapid Ejection
D. Ventricular filling
290. Which hypolipidemic drug may increase triglycerides ?
A. Gemfifrozil
B. Ezetimibe
C. Atorvastatin
D. Bile acid resins
291. Chromaffin cells in adrenal gland are stimulated by
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic
C. Postganglionic sympathetic
D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
292 ADH regulates blood pressure via
A. V1 receptor via cAMP
B. V2 receptor via IP3
C. V1 receptor via IP3
D. V2 receptor via cAMP
293. True in Severe magnesium deficiency …….
A. Decreases PTH secretion
B. Increases PTH secretion
C. Effect on PTH level similar to hypocalcemia
D. None
294. Antimicrosomal antibodies are associated with
A. PBC
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
C. polymyositis
D. Sjogren syndrome
295. Cinalcet is a ……
A. Calcium sensitizer
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Calcitonin antagonist
D. PTH analogue
296. True in hyperthyroidism(thyrotoxicosis) is …
A. Proximal myopathy with raised CK level
B. Distal myopathy with normal CK level
C. Proximal myopathy with normal CK level
D. Distal myopathy with raised CK level
297. Most common karyotype in complete mole is
A. 46xx
B. 46xy
C. 69xy
D. 69xx
298. The antiepileptic drug causing renal stones ?
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin
299. The drug metyrapone is used in diagnosing
A. Primary Adrenal insufficiency
B. SIADH
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Hyperaldosteronism
300. Which is not a risk factor in prinzmetal angina?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Hypertension
C. Smoking
D. A and B
301. Pupillomotor fibres are carried via Occulomotor nerve via
A. Nerve to inferior oblique
B. Nerve to superior oblique
C. Nerve to inferior rectus
D. Nerve to medial rectus
302. Recurrence rate of febrile seizure is …
A. 1 pc
B. 30 pc
C. 5 pc
D. 70 pc
303. Philip criteria used in
A. Neonatal sepsis
B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
C. Congenital heart disease
D. Delayed developmental milestones
304 Vitelline duct obliterates by
A. 7 wk
B. 12 wk
C. 4 wk
D. 20 wk
305 Most common infection in renal transplant patients ?
A. CMV
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candida
D. Cryptococcus
306 Granuloma is not a feature ?
A. Takayashu arteritis
B. Microscopic polyangiitis
C. Wegner granulomatosis
D. Churg Strauss syndrome
307. Wegners granulomatosis can be differentiated from microscopic polyangiitis in all except
A. cANCA positivity
B. Nasopharyngeal involvement
C. Granuloma
D. Small vessel vasculitis
308. One of the following condition is associated with exposure to macrolides ….
A. Hirschprung disease
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Tracheoesophageal atresia
D. None
309. Main pancreatic duct is formed by
A. Dorsal pancreatic bud
B. Ventral pancreatic bud
C. Both
D. Neural crest cell
310. Gastrosplenic ligament contains …
A. Right gastriepiploic vessels
B. Left gastroepiploic vessels
C. Splenic vessels
D. Left gastric artery
311 Pectinate Line is formed where
A. Ectoderm meets mesoderm
B. Ectoderm meets endoderm
C. Mesoderm meets endoderm
D. Endoderm meets endoderm
312 The Auerbach plexus in GI tract is situated
A. Superficial to longitudinal layer of muscle
B. Deep to circular layer of muscle
C. Between outer longitudinal and inner circular muscle layer
D. Submucosa layer
313 True is
A. More incidence of kidney stones in crohn disease than UC
B. Antisaccharomyces ab more common in UC
C. Noncaseating granuloma seen in UC
D. Rectum is spared in UC
314 The investigation of choice for colorectal Ca screening is
A. Colonoscopy
B. Fecal occult blood
C. Fecal immunochemical testing
D. CEA
315 spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed if ascetic fluid
A. ANC >125 cells/cumm
B. ANC >250cells /cumm
C. ANC >300cells/cumm
D. ANC > 350cells /cumm
316 Ground glass hepatocytes are seen in
A. Hep A
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E
317 The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis on the characteristic clinical feature is highly suggestive if serum amylase level …..
A. More than 2 Times normal upper limit
B. More than 3 Times normal upper limit
C. More than 4 Times normal upper limit
D. More than 1.5 Times normal upper limit
318 True is …..
A. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor irreversibly.
B. Pantoprazole blocks H K ATPase irreversibly
C. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor reversibly
D. B and C
319 The true statement is
A. Sulfasalazine causes irreversible oligospermia
B. NSAIDS may be chemopreventive in colorectal carcinoma
C. Enteropathic arthritis and IBD have temporal relationship in appearance.
D. Right sided colorectal carcinoma often presents with obstructing symptoms
320 All are false statement except
A. Gastrin promotes the gastric mucosa growth
B. Octreotide decreases cholelithiasis
C. Secretin stimulates the release of gastrin.
D. Gastrin release is not stimulated by histamine
321 congenital hypertrophy of pigment epithelium is seen in ….
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP
322 Brain tumors are commonly seen with
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP
323 True statement in hypervitaminosis D is ….
A. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 more , serum ALP more
B. Serum Ca less, serum PO4 more, serum ALP more
C. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 less, serum ALP more
D. Serum Ca and serum PO4 more
324. Steven Johnson syndrome involves
A. At least 1 mucous membranes
B. At least 2 mucous membranes
C. At least 3 mucous membranes
D. Mucous membranes not involved at all
325. The pathology in pemphigus vulgaris is in …..
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
326 False in blood brain barrier formation is
A. Fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
B. Basement membrane
C. Astrocyte foot process
D. None
327 Trochoid joint is …
A. Elbow joint
B. Atlantoaxial joint
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Knee joint
328 The primary brain tumor associated with precocious puberty ?
A. Pinealoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Astrocytoma
329 Adrenoleukodystrophy is due to the defect in metabolism of
A. Very long chain FA
B. Short chain FA
C. Carbohydrate
D. Aminoacid
330 Early onset glaucoma is typically seen in
A. Sturge Weber syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Von Hippel lindau syndrome
331 Ex vacuo ventriculomegaly is seen in
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Postmeningitis
C. Pseudotumor cerebri
D. Rheumatic fever
332 All are true in GBS except
A. Steroid improves the recovery
B. Destruction of Schwann cells is a typical feature
C. Normal cell count in CSF analysis
D. An example of molecular mimicry
333 False in aphasia is …
A. Repetition intact in Broca’s aphasia
B. Insight is present in Wernicke aphasia
C. Comprehension is intact in Wernicke aphasia
D. All
334 The modified sweat gland is ?
A. Meibomian gland
B. Gland of Moll
C. Zeis gland
D. All
335 Norepinephrine in brain is synthesized in
A. Locus cereleus
B. Raphe nucleus
C. Nucleus accumbens
D. Substantial nigra
336 The longest duration in sleep cycle is
A. REM
B. NREM1
C. NREM2
D. NREM3
337 The aqueous humor is produced by
A. Pigmented epithelium of ciliary body
B. Nonpigmented epithelium of ciliary body
C. Iris
D. Trabecular meshwork
338 One of the following drug is a central COMT inhibitor ?
A. Tolcapone
B. Entacapone
C. Selegiline
D. Amantadine
339 Anticholinergic don’t have role in improving …….……..in Parkinsonism.
A. Rigidity
B. Tremor
C. Bradykinesia
D. A and B
340 The antiepileptic drug associated with Steven Johnson syndrome
A. Lamotrigine
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. All
341 The antiepileptic drug associated with SIADH ..
A. Carbamazepine
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Lamotrigine
342 The antiepileptic drug with glaucoma as a side effect
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin
343 The antiepileptic with personality change as a side effect
A. Lamotrigine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Levatiracetam
D. Phenytoin
344 The ovary size in PCOS in ultrasound imaging is ……….cc.
A. >10
B. >5
C. >20
D. <10
345 The longest duration of action in antidiabetic is …….
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Metformin
C. Nateglinide
D. Glimepride
346 The shortest duration of action in antidiabetic is ……
A. Tolbutamide
B. Glipizide
C. Nateglinide
D. Metformin
347 The antidiabetic drug with Renal excretion is ……..
A. Tolbutamide
B. Chlorpropamide
C. Metformin
D. B and C
348 Danazol is used in
A. Menorrhagia
B. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Endometriosis
D. All
349 A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is to be started on the CHOPregimen, which consists of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone. Which one of the following agents is most likely to be protectiveagainst the toxicity of doxorubicin?
A. Amifostine
B. . Dexrazoxane
C. Leucovorin
D. Mesna
350. Sjogren syndrome has primarily deficiency in……….
A. Aqueous layer of tear
B. Mucus layer of tear
C. Lipid layer of tear
D. All layers
351 The crescent shaped gametocytes seen in blood film in ….
A. P vivax
B. P malaria
C. P ovale
D. P falciparum
352 Non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis is more often associated with …………..of lung.
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Squamous cell ca
D. Large cell ca
353 The most common nerve injured disputing laparoscopic hernia repair is
A. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
B. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Ilioinguinal nerve
D. Iliohypogastric nerve
354 Gynecomastia is associated more commonly with …………of lung.
A. Small cell ca
B. Large cell ca
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
355 The global demineralization is apparent on X-rays when bone density loss exceeds ……
A. 30 pc
B. 50 pc
C. 15 pc.
D. 70 pc
356 The drug of choice in bacillary angiomatosis is ……
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ketoconazole
357 The diagnosis of metabolic syndrome doesn’t consider …….
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Blood pressure
D. Fasting glucose
358 The most common finding in paget disease of bone is
A. Bone pain and hearing loss
B. Asymptomatic
C. Entrapment neuropathy
D. Increasing size of hat
359 The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Parathyroid carcinoma
D. Pituitary tumor
360 The most common cause of hyperaldosteronism ?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal carcinoma
D. Adrenal insufficiency
361 The test not used as test of cure in H pylori ?
A. Fecal antigen test
B. Urea breath test
C. Serological test
D. Urease test
362 The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is
A. Alcohol
B. Gallstones
C. Drugs
D. Hypertriglyceridemia
363 The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is …
A. Alcohol
B. Drugs
C. Gallstones
D. Trauma
364 The gallstone ileus risk may be seen with the size of gall stone greater than
A. 2.5 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 3.5 cm
365 The hummingbird sign is seen in
A. Parkinsonism
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Progressive supranuclear palsy
D. Pinealoma
366 The hypoechoic lesion is seen in USG liver with metastasis of …..
A. Colon
B. RCC
C. Thyroid ca
D. Breast ca
367 A microbiology student cultured a specimen for isolation of an organism. He found that the bacteria grew as metallic green shin colonies in eosin methylene blue agar. Name the most probable organism ?
A. Klebsiella
B. E. coli
C. Enterobacter
D. Serratia
368 Not an encapsulated organism ?
A. N. Meningitidis
B. Salmonella
C. N. Gonorrhoea
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
369 All are true in bacterial vaginosis except …..
A. Clue cells are characteristic feature
B. Fishy smell grayish vaginal discharge
C. Not sexually transmitted
D. Increased leukocytes in the discharge
All are true in salmonella typhi except
A. The humans are reservoirs
B. Hematogenous spread is very rare
C. The monocytic response is primarily seen.
D. Fecooral transmission
371 The palms and soles are spared in …
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Coxsackie virus A infection
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Secondary syphilis
372 The rash starts typically from wrist and ankles in …..
A. Measles
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Endemic typhus
373 All are true in congenital syphilis except
A. Long maxilla
B. Saber shins
C. Mulberry molars
D. Saddle nose
374 No rash and no vector is in
A. Ehrlicosis
B. Q fever
C. Chicken pox
D. Hand foot mouth disease
375 The rickettsiae that can be cultured is …..
a. Ricketsia Quintana
b. Ricketsia prowazeki
c. Ricketsia typhi
d. Ricketsia ricketsia
376 The dimorphic fungi not living as an yeast in the human tissue ……
A. Coccioidiodes
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Cryptocccus neoformans
377 Desert rheumatism in mycoses is a feature of ………
A. Coccidioides
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Blastomycosis
378 The parasitic infestation with periorbital edema, myalgias is ………
A. Trichinella
B. Echinococcus
C. Taenia solium
D. Strongyloides
379 The parasite causing dimorphic anemia …..
a. Anclyostoma
b. Round worm
c. Trichuris
d. Enterobius
380 The parasite causing pulmonary hypertension is
A. Schistosomiasis hematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Schistosoma japonicum
381 The hepatitis B is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Both
D. Lichen planus
382 The hepatitis C is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Porphyria cutanea tarda
D. None
383 The macrovesicular steatosis is seen in ……..
A. HepA
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E
384 Not an enveloped virus
A. Hep A
B. HepB
C. Hep C
D. Hep D
385 Ebola virus is …
A. Filo virus
B. Flavi virus
C. Hepadna virus
D. Herpes virus
386 About Zika virus , false statement is ……
A. Is a flavi virus
B. Causes miscarriages and congenital microcephay
C. Transmitted by Aedes mosquito
D. No sexual transmission
387 Transmitted by ixodes tick …
A. Lyme disease
B. Babesiosis
C. Anaplasmosis
D. All
388 Disease transmitted by Reduviid bug …..
A. Chagas’ disease
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q. 1. ALL OR NONE EFFECTS OF TERATOGENICITY IS SEEN IN .......AGE OF GESTATION?
A. 1 - 3 WKS
B. 3 TO 8 WKS
C 8WKS TO 16 WKS
D 16 WKS ONWARD
Q.2.THE CRANIOCAUDAL ARRANGEMENT OF BODY PARTS IS MAINTAINED BY ........GENE
HOMEBOX GENE
FGF
SONIC HEDGEHOG GENE
WNT7 GENE
Q.3. DIABETIC GLOMERULOPATHY , ONE IS TRUE?
A NONENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
B ENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
C LEAST COMMON CAUSE OF CRF
D THINNING OF GBM.
Q.4.STONE ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASE PH IN URINE.
URIC ACID
CYSTINE
CALCIUM OXALATE
CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
Q.5.URIC ACID CRYSTAL IN URINE IN URIC ACID STONES ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE
Q.6.URIC ACID CRYSTALS IN GOUT ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE
Q.7. ONE OF FOLLOWING IS ASSOCIATED WITH WT2 MUTATION ?
WAGR COMPLEX
BECKWITH WEIDMAN SYNDROME
DENYS DRASCH SYNDROME
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
Q.8.SCHISTOSOMIASIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH....
SQ CELL CA OF BLADDER
TRANSITIONAL CELL CA OF BLADDER
ADENO A OF BLADDER
ALL
Q.9? RCC ARISES FROM
PCT CELLS
DCT CELLS
COLLECTING DUCT
LOOP OF HENLE
Q.10.BASKET WEAVING APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN ......IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
Q.11WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IS SEEN IN ...... IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : IMMUNOFLUROSCENCE
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
12.WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IN KIDNEY IS SEEN IN .......
ALPORT SYNDROME
SLE
PSGN
RHEUMATIC FEVER
13. FULL VISUAL ACUITY OBTAINED AT ...YRS.
8
4
2
6
14. THE TOTAL NUMBER OF CARDINAL POSITION OF GAZE ARE
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
15. ACCOMMODATION REFLEX FULLY DEVELOPED AT ....AGE .
A. 6 MONTHS
B. 12 MONTHS
C. 4 MONTHS
D. 8 MONTHS
16. MOST COMMMON SITE OF SALMONELLA OSTEOMYELITIS IN SICKLE CELL PATIENTS ?
DIAPHYSIS
METAPHYSIS
EPIPHYSIS
17. COLLECTING DUCT DERIVED FROM
MESONEPHROS
URETERIC BUD
METANEPHRIC MESENCHYME
UROGENITAL SINUS
18. DRUG ASSO WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA ? CEPHALOSPORIN MACROLIDES TETRACYCLINES SULPHONAMIDES
19. SEROTONIN SECRETED BY
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN CELL
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN LIKE CELL
PARIETAL CELL
D CELL
20. PARAMESONEPHRIC DUCT CONTRIBUTES TO
UPPER THIRD OF VAGINA
LOWER THIRD OF VAGINA
UPPER TWO THIRD
LOWER TWO THIRD
21. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HEPATITIS DOESN’T TRANSMIT SEXUALLY?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS E
D. HEPATITIS A AND E.
22.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF GULMINANT HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D
23. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CHRONICITY IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D
24. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CARRIER IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E
25. DENSE DEPOSIT DISEASE IS
A. TYPE 1 MPGN
B. TYPE 2MPGN
C. MESANGIOPROLIFERATIVE GN
D. CRESCENTIC GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
26. RISK OF TRANSMISSION TO FETUS IN HBSAG POSITIVE MOTHER WITH HBEAG POSITIVE STATUS IS ….
A. 20 PC
B. 90 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 50 PC
27. MOST COMMON PERINATAL TRANSMISSION IN VIRAL HEPATITIS IS
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E
28. FETAL MOVEMENT STARTS AT
A. 8 WKS
B. 6 WKS
C. 18 WKS
D. 16 WKS
29. WHICH IS NOT TRIAD OF CRS?
A. MENTAL RETARDATION
B. HEARING LOSS
C. HEART DEFECTS
D. CONGENITAL CATARACT
30. MEGALOCORNEA IS CORNEAL DIAMETER …..
A. MORE THAN 13MM
B. MORE THAN 11 MM
C. MORE THAN 15 MM
D. MORE THAN 8 MM
31.GENITAL STRUCTURES CAN BE IDENTIFIED AT
A. 7 WKS
B. 10 WKS
C. 12 WKS
D. 8 WKS
32. QUADRATE LOBE OF LIVER REPRESENTS ……..SEGMENT?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 1
33. THE KILLED VACCINE WHICH IS CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY?
A. RABIES
B. SALK
C. MENINGOCOCCAL
D. HEPATITIS B
34. THE LIVE VACCINE WHICH IS NOT CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY ?
A. RUBELLA
B. TYPHOID
C. YELLOW FEVER
D. MEASLES
35. THE ENDEMICITY OF MENINGOCOCCUS MENINGITIS IS ……..
A. 0.01 PC
B. 0.1PC
C. 1 PC
D. 0.5 PC
36.HCG INCREASES IN ………
A. DOWN SYNDROME
B. EDWARD SYNDROME
C. PATHAU SYNDROME
D ALL
37.THECA INTERNA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO ……
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE
38. GRANULOSA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE
39. TOUGHEST MUCOSA OF THE BODY IS …..
A. ESOPHAGUS
B. STOMACH
C. SMALL INTESTINE
D. COLON
40. WHICH ENTERS THROUGH VENACAVAL OPENING OF DIAPHRAGM ?
A. RIGHT PHRENIC NERVE
B. LEFT PHRENIC NERVE
C. RIGHT VAGUS NERVE
D. LEFT VAGUS NERVE
41. AORTIC ARCH IS DERIVED FROM ……PHARYNGEAL ARCH ?
A. FIRST
B. SECOND
C. THIRD
D. FOURTH
42. MOST SUSCEPTIBLE NERVE FIBRE AMONG FOLLOWING TO HYPOXIA IS ?
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. NONE
43.MAXIMUM WATER REABSORPTION IN KIDNEY OCCURS FROM …….?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. LOOP OF HENLE
44.THE MAJOR HORMONE PRODUCED BY PLACENTA ?
A. ESTRIOL
B. ESTRONE
C. ESTRADIOL
D. INSULIN GROWTH FACTOR
45. THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN IN POSTMENOPAUSAL WOMEN ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRADIOL
C. ESTRIOL
D. PROGESTERONE
46.THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN PRODUCED FROM OVARY IS ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRIOL
C. ESTRADIOL
D. ANDROSTENEDIONE
47. BOTH NUCLEAR AND CYTOPLASMIC INCLUSION BODIES ARE FOUND IN …..?
A. CMV
B. MEASLES
C. CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
D. ADENOVIRUS
48. PRIMARY OOCYTE IS ARRESTED IN ………STAGE ?
A. PROPHASE I OF MEIOSIS I
B. PROPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
C. METAPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
D. ANAPHASE OF MEIOSIS II
49. PEAK LEVEL OF HCG IN PREGNANCY IS ATTAINED AT……?
A. 8 TO 10 WKS
B. 6 TO 8 WKS
C. 10 TO 12 WKS
D. 12 TO 14 WKS
50. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING HAS GREATEST POTENCY?
A. DHT
B. TESTOSTERONE
C. ANDROSTENEDIONE
D. ALL EQUAL
51. RISK OF CHORIOCARCINOMA FOLLOWING COMPLETE MOLE IS …?
A. 2 PC
B. 4 PC
C. 8 PC
D. 15 PC
52. NEGRI BODIES ARE
A. INTRACYTOPLASMIC BASOPHILIC
B. INTRANUCLEAR EOSINOPHILIC
C. INTRACYTOPLASMIC EOSINOPHILIC
D. INTRANUCLEAR BASOPHILIC
53. CLINICAL INCUBATION PERIOD OF FILARIASIS IS
A. 8 TO 16 MONTHS
B. 6 TO 12 MONTHS
C. 3 TO 6 MONTHS
D. 1 TO 2 MONTHS
54.PROTOZOAN STAGE IN TRANSMISSION OF MALARIA VIA BLOOD TRANSFUSION IS
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. GAMETOCYTES
C. SPOROZOITE
D. MEROZOITE
55.CLINICAL SYMPTOMS CORRELATE WITH RELEASE OF ……..STAGE OF MALARIAL PARASITE IN BLOOD ?
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. SPOROZOITE
C. MEROZOITES
D. GAMETOCYTES
56.AN AREA IS DECLARED RABIES FREE IF
A. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 1 YR
B. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 2 YRS
C. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 5 YRS
D. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 4 YRS
57.APPARENT TO INAPPARENT CASES RATIO IN JE IS
A. 1:100 to 1:300
B. 1:300 TO 1:1000
C. 1:1000 TO 1: 2000
D. 1:50 to 1:100
58.CASE FATALITY RATE OF JE IS
A. 30 PC
B. 50 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 80 PC
59.PERCENTAGE OF CASES OF JE IN CHILDREN
A. 85
B. 60
C. 50
D. 95
60.CHOLESTEROL CRYSTAL ARE SEEN IN
A. EPENDYMOMA
B. MEDULLOBLASTOMA
C. CRANIPHARYNGIOMA
D. ASTROCYTOMA
61.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS?
A. S AUREUS
B. S EPIDERMIDIS
C. STREP VIRIDANS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
62.RENAL STONES ASSOCIATED WITH …..
A. PROXIMAL RTA
B. DISTAL RTA
C. HYPERKALEMIC RTA
D. NONE
63.BROCA’S AREA IS LOCATED IN
A. POSTERIOR SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
B. POSTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS
C. ANTERIOR SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
D. ANTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS
64.WHICH DOESN’T PASS THROUGH SINUS OF MORGAGNI ?
A. LEVATO VELLI PALATI
B. AUDITORY TUBE
C. ASCENDING PALATINE ARTERY
D. TENSOR VELLI PALATI
65.WHICH ONE IS NOT A BOUNDARY OF ANATOMICAL SNUFFBOX ?
A. EXTENSOR CARPI RADIALIS
B. ABDUCTOR POLLICIS LONGUS
C. EXTENSOR POLLICIS LONGUS
D. EXTENSOR POLLICIS BREVIS
66. DORELLOS CANAL ENCOMPASSES …..
A. ABDUCENS NERVE
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. TROCHLEAR
D. HYPOGLOSSAL
67. PERINEAL BODY IS FORMED BY ……MUSCLES.
A. 9
B. 6
C. 3
D. 8
68. RICKETSIAE PROWAZEKII IS CAUSATIVE AGENT OF
A. EPIDEMIC TYPHUS
B. ENDEMIC TYPHUS
C. INDIAN TICK TYPHUS
D. MURINE TYPHUS
69.RMSF IS CAUSED BY …..
A. R PROWAZEKKII
B. R. RICKETTSIA
C. R. TYPHI
D. RICKETTSIAE TSUSUGAMASHI
70. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL AFFERENT ?
A. OPTIC NERVE
B. OLFACTORY NERVE
C. TRIGEMINAL NERVE
D. ABDUCENS NERVE
71. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL EFFERENT ?
A. ABDUCENS
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. HYPOGLOSAAL
D. MANDIBULAR
72. DURING THYROIDECTOMY PROCEDURE ?
A. TRUE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
B. TRUE CAPSULE IS LEFT BEHIND
C. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
D. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS RETAINED
73. THE LATERAL ROTATOR OF SHOULDER IS
A. TERES MINOR
B. TERES MAJOR
C. SUBSCAPULARIS
D. NONE
74. MYELINATION IS COMPLETE BY THE AGE OF …….?
A. 5 YRS
B. 7 YRS
C. 10 YRS
D. 2 YRS
75. THE NUMBER OF ALVEOLI REACHES ADULT VALUE AT THE AGE OF ……?
A. 6 YRS
B. 4 YRS
C. 8 YRS
D. 10 YRS
76. THE CILIA TERMINATES IN …..
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
77. CILIATED CUBOIDAL EPITHELIUM IS FOUND IN ……
A. BRONCHI
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
78. SECOND WIND PHENOMENON IS SEEN IN ……
A. VON GIERKE DISEASE
B. MC ARDLE DISEASE
C CORI DISEASE
D POMPE DISEASE
79. MALLORY BODY IS
A. PRODUCT OF LYSOSOMAL DEGRADATION
B INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS
C FAT DROP,ETC IN HEPATOCYTES
D ALL
80. WHICH IS LEAST LIKELY IN PITUITARY ADENOMA ?
LACTOTROPH
SOMATOTROPH
CORTCOTROPH
THYROTROPHS
81. WHICH ONE HAS HIGH RISK OF OXALATE STONE ?
A. ENFLURANE
B. METHOXYFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. SEVOFLURANE
82. WHICH ONE IS SPORADIC CONGENITAL ?
A. STURGE WEBER SYNDROME
B. TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS
C. VON HIPPEL LINDAU
D. NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
83. PULMONARY ARTERIES DERIVED FROM ? ARCH .
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
84. LAST TO CANALIZE IN URINARY SYSTEM IS
A. URETEROPELVIC JUNCTION
B. LOWER URETER
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. CALYCES
85. WHICH ONE IS MATURE DEFENSE ?
A. SUPPRESSION
B. PROJECTION
C. RATIONALIZATION
D. DENIAL
86. CLARA CELLS ARE MAXIMUM IN
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT
87. FACTOR VIII IS MARKER OF
A. ANGIOSARCOMA
B. RHABDOMYOSARCOMA
C. HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA
D. MELANOMA
88. SIADH CAUSING ANTIEPILEPTIC?
A. CARBAMAZEPINE
B. VALPROATE
C. TIAGABINE
D. LAMOTRIGINE
89. SYRINGOMYELIA IS MOST COMMON AT ......
A. C5 C6
B. C6 C7
C. C7 C8
D. C8 T1
90. LESION OF OPTIC CHIASMA CAUSES
A. BITEMPORAL HETERONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
B. BITEMPORAL HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
C. LEFT NASAL HEMIANOPIA
D. RIGHT NASAL HEMIANOPIA
91. CORTICOSPINAL TRACT ARISES FROM ?
A. EXTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER
B. INTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
C. EXTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
D. INTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER
92. AICA LESION , NOT TRUE IS
A. VOMITING
B. DROOPING OF ANGLE OF MOUTH
C. DYSPHAGIA
D. HORNER SYNDROME
93. WALLENBERG SYNDROME IS DUE TO LESION IN
A. AICA
B. PICA
C. ANTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY
D. BASILAR ARTERY
94. SLAP CHEEK APPEARANCE IS IN
A. FIRST DZ
B. THIRD
C. FIFTH
D. SIXTH
95. FIRST SYMPTOM OF SYMPATHETIC OPTHALMITIS ?
A. NEAR ACCOMMODATION DIFFICULT
B. PHOTOPHOBIA
C. LACRIMATION
D. PAIN
96. WHITE UVEITIS SEEN IN
A. AS
B. JRA
C. SARCOIDOSIS
D. NONE
97. LUNG METS IN CHORIOCARCINOMA IMPLIES STAGE
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
98. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO PCO2 TILL ……..mmHg
A. 90
B. 80
C. 100
D. 70
99. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO HYPOXIA WHEN PO2 IS LESS THAN ………mmHg .
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 40
100. NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS IN SCHIZOPHRENIA ARE MEDIATED IN
A. MESOCORTICAL PATHWAY
B. MESOLIMBIC
C. NIGROSTRIATAL
D. TUBEROINFUNDIBULAR
101. HUNTINGTON CHOREA
A MORE DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
B LESS DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
C LESS ACH , MORE DOPAMINE, LESS GABA
D LESS DOPAMINE LESS ACH LESS GABA
102. PAIN TEMPERATURE RELAYS TO ...........OF THALAMUS.
A. VPML
B. VPLN
C. MEDIAL GENICULATE BODY
D. NONE
103. DURA IS DERIVED FROM
A. NEURAL CREST
B. NEUROECTODERM
C. MESODERM
D. ENDODERM
104. NONDESTRUCTIVE VEGETATION IN HEART VALVES IS SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B SLE
C BOTH
D RHEUMATIC FEVER
105. MURAL INVOLVEMENT IS MOSTLY SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B NBTE
C RHEUMATIC FEVER
D LIBMAN SACK ENDOCARDITIS
106. CARCINOID SYNDROME IS ASSO WITH
A. TR
B. TS
C. AR
D. MS
107. WHICH IS MITOCHONDRIAL ENZYME?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. GGT
D. ALP
108. LONG STANDING MULTINODULAR GOITER , WHICH IS COMMON
A. PAPILLARY
B. FOLLICULAR
C. ANAPLASTIC
D. MEDULLARY
109. FALSE ABOUT POLYMYALGIA RHEUMATICA IS
A. RAISED ESR
B. RAISED CRP
C. RAISED CK
D. NORMAL CK
110. WHICH IS A PROGNOSTIC MARKER OF SLE ?
A. ANTI ANA
B. ANTI DSDNA
C. ANTI SMITH
D. ANTI HISTONE
111. EWING SARCOMA TRANSLOCATION IS
A. 9 22
B. 11 22
C. 8 22
D. 15 17
112. CORRECT SEQUENCE IN HB ELECTROPHORESIS.
A. HBA HBF HBS HBC
B. HBA HBS HBF HBC
C. HBC HBF HBS HBA
D. HBA HBC HBS HBF
113. HBH IS
DELETION OF
A. 1 ALPHA
B. 2 ALPHA
C. 3 ALPHA
D. 4 ALPHA
114. HBC IS
SUBSTITUTION OF GLUTAMIC ACID BY
A LEUCINE
B LYSINE
C VALINE
D THREONINE
115. WHICH IS NOT CAUSE OF MICROANGIPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA . ?
A SLE
B TTP
C DIC
D PROSTHETIC CARDIAC VALVES
116. RINGED SIDEROBLAST IS SEEN IN
BONE MARROW
LIVER
SPLEEN
PERIPHERAL SMEAR
117. DEGMACYTE SEEN IN
G6PD DEF
LIVER DZ
END STAGE RENAL DZ
THALASSEMIA
118. BONE MARROW ERYTHROPOIESIS STARSTS FROM ....
10 WKS
18 WKS
32 WKS
6 WKS
119. WHICH IS SECRETED BY DENSE GRANULES OF PLATELET ?
ADP
FIBRINOGEN
FIBRONECTIN
VWF
120. LIPID A OF LPS OF BACTERIA BINDS WITH .......ON MACROPHAGE.
A. CD 14
B. CD 28
C. CD 4
D. CD 8
121. CLOCK FACE CHROMATIN WITH ECCENTRIC NUCLEUS SEEN IN
A. PLASMA CELL
B. NEUTROPHIL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. MACROPHAGE
122. FROSTED GLASS CYTOPLASM SEEN IN
A. NEUTROPHIL
B. MONOCYTES
C. EOSINOPHIL
D. BASOPHIL
123. PULMONARY ARTERIAL HTN IS ASSOCIATED WITH …..?
A. BMPR2
B. BETA CATENIN
C. HOMEBOX GENE
D. P53
124. THE SEQUENCE IN NATURAL HISTORY OF PNEUMONIA ?
A. CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
B. CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
C RED HEPATIZATION CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
D GRAY HEPATIZATION CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
125. WHICH ONE AFFECTS LOWER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. ASBESTOSIS
B . SILICOSIS
C. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS
D. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
126. WHICH ONE AFFECTS UPPER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C BERYLLIOSIS
D . B AND C
127. WHICH ONE IS RELATED TO SMOKING ?
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C. MESOTHELIOMA
D. ADENOCARCINOMA LUNG
128. SMOKING IS NOT A RISK FACTOR IN ….
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. MESOTHELIOMA
C SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
D OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA
129. ASBESTOSIS IS MORE OFTEN ASSOCIATED WITH …?
A. MESOTHELIOMA
B. BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA
C. TUBERCULOSIS
D. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
130. IVORY WHITE CALCIFIED PLEURAL PLAQUES ABOVE THE DIAPHRAGM IS SEEN IN ……
A. ASBESTOSIS
B. SILICOSIS
C. BERYLLIOSIS
D. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS
131. THE BEST PROGNOSIS IN LUNG CA IS IN
A SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B ADENO CA
C BRONCHIAL CARCINOID
D SMALL CELL CA
132. LUNG CA WITH LEAST METASTASIS ?
A. LARGE CELL CA
B. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
C. SMALL CELL CA
D BRONCHIAL CARCINOID
133. WHICH ONE IS PERIPHERAL IN LOCATION ?
A. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B. ADENO CARCINOMA
C. LARGE CELL CARCINOMA
D. B AND C
134. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN ARE
A. NONAPEPTIDE
B DECAPEPTIDE
C PENTAPEPTIDE
D TETRA PEPTIDE
135. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN DIFFERS IN AMINO ACID IN ……….
A. POSITION 3 AND 8
B POSITION 2 AND 6
C POSITION 3 AND 6
D POSITION 4 AND 8
136. MAXIMUM K CONCENTRATION IS FOUND IN ……
A. COLONIC FLUID
B SALIVA
C GASTRIC JUICE
D PANCREATIC JUICE
138. MAXIMUM POTASSIUM SECRETION IS FOUND IN ….
A. SALIVA
B. PANCREATIC JUICE
C. COLONIC FLUID
D GASTRIC JUICE
139. MAXIMUM OXYGEN CONSUMPTION IN BODY AFTER LIVER IS BY ?
A. KIDNEY
B HEART
C SKELETAL MUSCLE
D BRAIN
140 HISTONE SYNTHESIS OCCURS IN ……
A. G2 PHASE
B. S PHASE
C. G1 PHASE
D. M PHASE
141. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCESS MAKES DNA ACTIVE ?
A. DNA METHYLATION
B. DNA ACETYLATION
C. HISTONE METHYLATION
D. ALL
142. . HISTONES CONTAIN ………AMINOACID ?
A. LYSINE
B .ARGININE
C BOTH
D HISTIDINE
143. RIBAVIRIN ACTS ON ……
A. IMP DEHYDROGENASE
B. DHF REDUCTASE
C. PRPP SYNTHETASE
D. DIHYDROOROTATE DEHYDROGENASE
144. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISRUPTS BOTH PURINE AND PYRIMIDINE SYNTHESIS ?
A. MYCOPHENOLATE MOFETIL
B. HYDROXYUREA
C. FLUROURACIL
D. LEFLUNOMIDE
145. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING AA HAS SINGLE CODON ?
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. LEUCINE
C. GLYCINE
D. LYSINE
146. WHICH ENZYME JOINS OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS DURING DNA REPLICATION ?
A. DNA LIGASE
B. DNA POLYMERASE I
C. DNA POLYMERASE III
D. DNA TOPOISOMERASE I
147. DUCHENNES MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY AND TAY SACHS DISEASE ARE GOOD EXAMPLES OF …… …..?
A. POINT MISSENSE MUTATION
B FRAMESHIFT MUTATION
C. NONSENSE MUTATION
D. SPLICE SITE MUTATION
148. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR OCCURS IN …….PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
149. LYNCH SYNDROME IS THE RESULT OF DEFECTIVE ……?
A. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR
B. BASE EXCISION REPAIR
C. MISMATCH REPAIR
D. ALL OF ABOVE
150. SHORTEST PHASE OF CELL CYCLE IS ….?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
151. RBCS ARE IN ………..PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. G0
152. OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA HAS MOST COMMONLY AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT FORM INHERITANCE WITH ……..
A. DEFECTIVE TYPE 1 COLLAGEN.
B. DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
C. DEFECTIVE TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
D. BOTH DEFECTIVE AND DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
153. MENKE DISEASE IS DUE TO DEFECT IN ……
A. ATP7A
B. ATP7B
C. BOTH
D. COL5A1
154. THE ROLE OF USE OF AZITHROMYCIN IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS IS ….
A. ANTIBACTERIAL
B. ANTI INFLAMMATORY
C. NO ROLE IN THE DISEASE
D. PROPHYLACTIC ROLE
155. WHICH AGENT SLOWS THE DISEASE PROGRESSION IN CF ?
A. IBUPROFEN
B. AZITHROMYCIN
C. HYPERTONIC SALINE NEBULISATION
D. CHEST PHYSIOTHERAPY
156. HEMOCHROMATOSIS IS A CONDITION OF ……..INHERITANCE ?
A. AD
B AR
C X-R
D XD
157. ARRANGE THE AUTOSOMAL TRISOMIES IN ORDER OF DECREASING INCIDENCE .?
A. DOWN EDWARD PATAU
B. DOWN PATAU EDWARD
C. EDWARD PATAU DOWN
D. PATAU EDWARD DOWN
158. QUAD SCREEN IN SECOND TRIMESTER IN EDWARD SYNDROME DIFFERS FROM DOWN SYNDROME IN …..
A. DECREASED BETA HCG
B. INCREASED AFP
C INCREASED ESTRIOL
D INCREASED INHIBIN A
159. VITAMIN THAT CAN BE USED FOR TREATMENT OF ANXIETY AND DEPRESSION ?
A. VIT B1
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B9
D. VIT B12
160. VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH PHOTOTHERAPY PROCEDURE IN INFANTS IS ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. FOLIC ACID
D. VIT B6
161. NIACIN OVERDOSE CAUSES FLUSHING IN FACE. THE FLUSHING CAN BE AVOIDED BY ……..
A. ASPIRIN
B. CHLORPHENIRAMINE
C. PHENYLEPHRINE
D. RANITIDINE
162. WHICH VITAMIN CONSUMPTION MAY NEED CAUTIOUS RESTRICTION IN HEREDITARY HEMOCHROMATOSIS?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN C
C. VITAMIN K
D. VITAMIN B9
163. PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI IS ASSOCIATED WITH ……….VITAMIN ?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN D
C. VITAMIN E
D. VITAMIN K
164. THE EXCESS INTAKE OF ………..CAN LEAD TO NEPHROLITIASIS ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B1
D. VIT A
165. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING VITAMIN IS USEFUL IN TREATMENT OF METHEMOGLOBINEMIA ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B2
C. VIT E
D. NONE
166. DISULFIRAM ACTS ON ………..ENZYME IN………?
A. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL
B. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
C. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
D. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL
167. WHICH METABOLIC PROCESS OCCURS IN MITOCHONDRIA?
A. FA SYNTHESIS
B. KETOGENESIS
C. GLYCOLYSIS
D. HMP SHUNT PATHWAY
168. THE AGENT USED IN METHANOL POISONING IS ….
A. FOMEPIZOLE
B. NALTREXONE
C. NALEMFINE
D. FLUMAZENIL
169. LIPID LADEN MACROPHAGES WITH CRUMPLED TISSUE PAPER APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN …..
A. GAUCHER DISEASE
B. TAYSACH DISEASE
C. NIEMAN PICK DISEASE
D. HURLER SYNDROME
170. MOST COMMON ORGANISM RETRIEVED IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS PATIENT FROM AIRWAY TRACT IN CHILDREN IS ……..
A. S AUREUS
B. PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA
C. HEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE
D. BURKHOLDERIA CEPACIA
171. GARGOYLISM IS TYPICALLY SEEN IN ….
A. HURLER SYNDROME
B. WILLIAMS SYNDROME
C. CRI DU CHAT SYNDROME
D. ANGELMAN SYNDROME
172. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS ON NMDA RECEPTOR.?
A. DEXTROMETHORPHAN
B. KETAMINE
C. A AND B
D KETOTIFEN
173. MEPERIDINE INDUCED SEIZURE CAN BE TREATED WITH ……..
A. NALOXONE
B. DIAZEPAM
C. BOTH
D. NALTREXONE
174. WHICH INCREASES THE DURATION OF CHLORIDE CHANNEL OPENING FOR ITS ACTION ?
A. BENZODIAZEPINES
B. BARBITURATES
C. OPIOIDS
D. GABAPENTIN
175. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SEDATIVE HYPNOTIC DRUG REACHES PLATEAU IN CNS DEPRESSION ?
A. ALCOHOL
B. BARBITURATES
C. BENZODIAZEPINES
D. ALL
176. BACLOFEN ACTS ON …
A. GABAA RECEPTOR
B. GABAB RECEPTOR
C. BOTH
D. MA RECEPTOR
177. BENZODIAZEPINES ACT VIA
A. PROLONGING DURATION OF CL CHANNEL OPENING
B. INACTIVATING ACTIVATED NA CHANNEL
C. INCREASES THE FREQUENCY OF CL CHANNEL OPENING
D. INACTIVATING THE T TYPE CALCIUM CHANNEL
178. CYANIDE ACTS ON ………COMPLEX IN ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN.
A. COMPLEX 1
B. COMPLEX 2
C. COMPLEX 3
D. COMPLEX 4
179. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH PAN ?
A. HEP A
B. HEP B
C. HEP C
D. HEP D
180. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH METABOLIC SYNDROME ?
A. HEP E
B. HEP C
C. HEP B
D. HEP A
181. WHICH ZONE OF LIVER MOSTLY CONCERNS DETOXIFICATION AND LIPID METABOLISM ?
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. ALL EQUALLY
182. THE CELLS INVOLVED IN SCARRING OF THE LIVER IN CHRONIC CIRRHOSIS ARE STELLATE CELLS. THESE CELLS RENDER SUCH EFFECT DUE TO RELEASE OF ………..
A. TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
B. TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
C. TYPE 3 COLLAGEN
D. TYPE 4 COLLAGEN
183. THE ARTERY FROM AORTA THAT SUPPLIES ADRENAL GLAND IS …….
A. SUPERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
B. MIDDLE SUPRARENAL ARTERY
C. INFERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
D. ALL
184. FUNDUS OF STOMACH IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. SHORT GASTRIC ARTERIES
B. LEFT GASTRIC ARTERY
C. RIGHT GASTRIC ARTERY
D. LEFT GASTROEPIPLOIC ARTERY
185. MELATONIN IS PRODUCED FROM ……
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. TYROSINE
C. PHENYLALANINE
D. PHENYLALANINE
186. CORTISOL ENHANCES THE ACTIVITY OF ……….ENZYME IN TYROSINE METABOLISM ?
A. TYROSINE HYDROXYLASE
B. DOPA DECARBOXYLASE
C. PNMT
D. DOPAMINE BETA HYDROXYLASE
187. DOPAMINE IS CONVERTED TO NOREPINEPHRINE BY ACTION OF DOPAMINE BETAHYDROXYLASE IN PRESENCE OF PRIMARILY ………………AS A COFACTOR.
A. PLP
B. VIT C
C. METHYLCOBALAMIN
D. TETRAHYDROBIOPTERIN
188. PRECURSOR OF CATECHOLAMINE IS ……
A. PHENYLALANINE
B. TYROSINE
C. BOTH A AND B
D. TRYPTOPHAN
189. YELLOW FEVER VIRUS IS SEEN TO HAVE TYPICALLY NECROSIS IN ………….OF LIVER.
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. NONE
190. THE TIME OF SCREENING OF PHENYLKETONURIA IN NEWBORN IS ……..
A. 12 HRS
B. 24 HRS
C. 48 HRS
D. IMMEDIATELY AFTER BIRTH
191. TRUE REGARDING GLYCOGEN METABOLISM IS …….
A. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
B. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS INACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATED STATE
C. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
D. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS INACTIVE IN PHOSPHORYLATION STATE
192. HYPOKETOTIC HYPOGLYCEMIA IS SEEN IN ………
A. INSULIN DEFICIENCY
B. CARNITINE DEFICIENCY
C. STARVATION
D. INSULINOMA
193. URINE FOR KETONE BODIES DETECT …………
A. ACETOACETATE
B. ACETONE
C. BETA HYDROXYBUTYRATE
D. A AND C
194. APO E IS NOT PRESENT IN …….
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. CHYLOMICRON
D. CHYLOMICRON REMNANT
195. APOB48 IS PRESENT IN
A. CHYLOMICRON
B. VLDL
C. HDL
D. LDL
196. THE APOLIPOPROTEIN PRESENT IN LDL
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO CII
D. APO E
197. THE APO LIPOPROTEIN NOT PRESENT IN CHYLOMICRON IS ….
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO E
D. APO CII
198. ABETALIPOPROTEINEMIA IS AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE CONDITION WHICH OCCURS DUE TO DEFECT IN APOB48 AND APO B100. THE TREATMENT OF THIS CONDITION IS …
A. VIT E
B. RESTRICTION OF MEDIUM CHAIN FATTY ACIDS
C. ANTIBIOTICS
D. ALL
199. THERE IS NO INCREASED RISK OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS IN ONE OF THE FOLLOWING FAMILIAL DYSLIPIDEMIA . THIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH DEFICIENCY OF APO CII APO LIPOPROTEIN IN THIS DISORDER.
A. TYPE 1 HYPERCHYLOMICRONEMIA
B. TYPE 2 FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA
C. TYPE 3 DYSBETALIPOPROTEINEMIA
D. TYPE 4 HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA
200. THE EXTENSOR OF HIP IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. INFERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
B. SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
C. OBTURATOR NERVE
D. FEMORAL NERVE
201. FALSE IN COCHLEA IS
A. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE MORE ABUNDANT THAN INNER HAIR CELLS.
B. INNER HAIR CELLS ARE RESISTANT TO TOXIC DRUGS AND NOISE THAN OUTER HAIR CELLS
C. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE PRIMARILY EFFERENT AND INNER HAIR CELLS ARE AFFERENT
D. OUTER HAIR CELLS TRANSMIT AUDITORY STIMULI
202. FALSE IS
A. LABYRINTHINE ARTERY IS A BRANCH OF AICA
B. THERE IS NO CROSS CIRCULATION BETWEEN MIDDLE EAR AND INNER EAR BLOOD SUPPLY.
C. THE BLOOD SUPPLY TO INNER EAR IS SEGMENTAL SUCH THAT ISCHEMIC LESION CAN AFFECT VESTIBULAR AND COCHLEAR SYSTEM IN ISOLATION.
D. ALL FALSE
203. CADAVERIC POSITION OF VOCAL CORD IS ….
A. MEDIAN
B INTERMEDIATE
C. PARAMEDIAN
D. FULL ABDUCTED
204. AMOUNT OF FIXATIVE FOR TISSUE FIXATION IS
A. 10 TIMES
B. 20 TIMES
C. SAME VOLUME AS TISSUE
D. 40 TIMES
205. THE MOST RELIABLE BACTERIAL INDICATOR OF WATER POLLUTION IS ….
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
206. THE BACTERIAL INDICATING THE RECENT CONTAMINATION OF WATER .
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS
207. KYOTO PROTOCOL IS RELATED TO …..
A. GLOBAL WARMING
B. ECONOMIC CRISIS
C. DISASTER MANAGEMENT
D. EPIDEMICS MANAGEMENT
208. BEST INDICATOR OF AIR POLLUTION
A. SO2
B CO
C. CO2
D. METHANE
209. THE LONGEST EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLE IS
A. SR
B. SO
C. IR
D. LR
210. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INSECT REPELLANT ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. VIT E
D. VIT C
211. A CLINICIAN PERFORMS TRENDELENBERG TEST ON A PATIENT, AND HE FOUND THAT THE PATIENT’S PELVIS SWAYED OR DROOPED ON THE RIGHT SIDE WHILE ATTEMPTING TO RAISE THE RIGHT SIDED PELVIS . THIS SUGGESTS THE CLINICIAN THAT
A. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS ARE PARALYZED ON THE RIGHT SIDE .
B. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS ARE PARALYZED ON LEFT THE LEFT SIDE.
C. THE RIGHT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED
D. THE LEFT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED.
212. THE MAXIMUM CONTRIBUTION TO GREEN HOUSE GASES IS BY
A. CO2
B. WATER VAPOR
C. CO
D SO2
213. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IS BRANCH OF ……
A. INTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
B. DEEP EXTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. EXTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
D. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
214. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IN FEMALE REPLACES ……….ARTERY OF MALE ?
A. INFERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
B. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. SUPERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
D. INFERIOR GLUTEAL ARTERY
215. BONY PERFORATION OF NASAL SEPTUM IS A FEATURE OF ….
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. LUPUS VULGARIS
D. SARCOIDOSIS
216. TOTAL NASAL SEPTAL DESTRUCTION IS SEEN IN ………
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. WERNER’S GRANULOMATOSIS
D. TB
217. AUDITORY FATIGUE OCCURS AT ….
A. 90 DB
B. 70 DB
C 120DB
D 160 DB
218. THE ANAESTHETIC AGENT MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR GREEN HOUSE GASES IS ………..
A. DESFLURANE
B. ENFLURANE
C. METHOXYFLURANE
D. ISOFLURANE
219. THE FASTEST ONSET OF ACTION AMONG THE FOLLOWING IS WITH ……….
A. DESFLURANE
B. SEVOFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. ENFLURANE
220. ANAESTHETIC AGENT ASSOCIATED WITH POSTOPERATIVE CHEST TIGHTNESS ?
A. PROPOFOL
B. FENTANYL
C. THIOPENTONE
D. KETAMINE
221. TRUE IS
A. B CELL SELECTION IS ORCHESTRATED IN THYMUS
B. T CELL UNDERGO NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMIC CORTEX
C. T CELLS UNDERGO BOTH POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMUS.
D. THYMIC MEDULLA SERVES TO POSITIVE SELECTION OF T CELLS.
222. THE ACUTE PHASE REACTANT THAT DECREASES IN SERUM CONCENTRATION IS RESPONSE TO INFLAMMATION ?
A. TRANSFERRIN
B. HEPCIDIN
C. FERRITIN
D. CRP
223. THE SPECIFIC COMPLEMENT ASSOCIATED WITH NEISSERIA GONORRHOEA INFECTION ?
A. C3
B. C1
C. C2
D. C5
224. THE ANTI INFLAMMATORY CYTOKINE IS….
A. INTERLEUKIN 10
B. INTERLEUKIN 2
C. INTERLEUKIN 6
D. INTERLEUKIN 4
225. FEBRILE NON HEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION IS ……HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION ?
A. TYPE 1
B. TYPE 2
C. TYPE 3
D. TYPE 4
226. The pore size in a bed net should be …..
A. 0.0475 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 0.2 inch
D. 0.002 inch
227. The muscle occupying the greater sciatic foramen is ……
A. Pyriformis
B. Gemelli
C. Gluteus Maximus
D. Obturator internus
228. The muscle occupying the lesser sciatic foramen is ….
A. Pyriformis
B. Obturator internus
C. Gemelli
D. None
229. One of the following structure doesn’t pass through lesser sciatic foramen ?
A. Obturator internus muscle
B. Internal pudendal vessels
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Gemelli
230. Narrowest part in middle ear cavity is
A. Epitympanum or attic
B. Mesotympanum
C. Hypotympanum
231. Crippling fluorosis is highly likely when fluoride concentration in drinking water exceeds ……..ppm.
A. 10
B. 6
C. 15
D. 2
232. Temporary hardness of water is due to ….
A. Bicarbonate salts
B. Sulphate and chlorides
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Hydroxides
233 True about iron deficiency anemia ?
A. TIBC increases
B. Transferrin increases
C. A and B
D. MCV increases
234. The enteroviral encephalitis is primarily seen in ……..
A. B cell deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Complement deficiency
235. A T cell disorder associated with conotruncal defects, Tetany, and recurrent fungal and viral infections is suggestive of …….
A. Di George syndrome
B. Job syndrome
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
236. Cold staphylococcal abscesses are often seen in …..
A. Autosomal dominant hyper IgE syndrome
B. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
C. Complement deficiency
D. Chronic granulomatous disease
237. Increased susceptibility to giardiasis is more often seen in ………
A. Complement deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. IgA deficiency
D. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
238. Condition specific to transplant rejection in liver is ………
A. Vanishing bile duct syndrome
B. Portal vein thrombosis
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Jaundice
239. False about immunosuppressant is ……
A. Sirolimus is not nephrotoxic .
B. Tacrolimus doesn’t cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism.
C. Mycophenolate mofetil is irreversible inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase.
D. Azathiopurine and allopurinol combination is an irrationals combination of treatment
240. Monoclonal Antibody used in refractory allergic asthma is
A. Omalizumab
B. Palivizumab
C. Abciximab
D. Eculizumab
241. Hook effect is seen in
A. Brucellosis
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Tularemia
242. Prozone phenomena results in false negative result owing to
A. Antigen is present in excess of antibody
B. Antibody is present in excess of antigens
C. Antigen and antibody are present in equal proportions
D. Antigen antibody interactions disturbed by the complements
243. Milk ring test is related to ….
A. Brucellosis
B. Tb
C. Salmonella
D. Bacteroides
244. R. Q of carbohydrate is ……
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 2
245. Commonest malignancy of eyelid is ….
A. Squamous cell ca
B. Nasal cell ca
C. Melanoma
D. Sarcoma
246. The lacrimal glands receive the innervation for lacrimation from ……
A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus
247. Average number of mites present on the body of a person suffering from scabies is ..
A. 5 -10
B. 10 -15
C. 15 -20
D. 50 -60
248. Cigar shaped eggs are seen in
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonia
249. Diabetes mellitus is not seen in ….
A. Friedrich ataxia
B. Ataxia telengiectasia
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Hemochromatosis
250. The tensor tympani attaches to ……
A. Neck of malleus
B. Handle of malleus
C. Head of stapes
D. Head of malleus
251. Part that doesn’t define incus is …..
A. Head
B. Body
C. Long process
D. Short process
252. Branch from first part of axillary artery ?
A. Superior thoracic artery
B. Lateral thoracic artery
C. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
D. Posterior circumflex humoral artery
253. Posterior fold of axillary is formed by all except
A. Lattismus dorsi
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres major
D. Pectoralis major
254. One of the following structures don’t pierce clavipectoral fascia ….
A. Thoracoaromial vessels
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Lateral pectoral nerve
D. Cephalic vein
255.Popliteal fossa is bounded laterally by ………
A. Biceps femori
B. Semimembranosus
C. Gracilis
D. Semitendinosus
256. Cubital fossa is bounded medially by …….
A. Pronator teres
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Brachialis
257. Supinator is pierced by …..
A. Anterior interosseous nerve
B. Posterior interosseous nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve
258. Live nonattenuated vaccine is …..
A. Adenovirus vaccine
B. Oral Ty21A
C. BCG
D. 17 D
259. False regarding Botulism in infants is ……
A. Performed toxin ingestion is responsible
B. Commonly seen with honey consumption
C. Causes floppy baby syndrome
D. The toxins implicated are heat labile
260. Gastric gland secretions increased primarily via
A. M1 receptor
B. M2 receptor
C. M3 receptor
D. Beta 3 receptor
261. Lipid soluble beta blocker is
A. Propranolol
B. Sotalol
C. Atenolol
D. Bisoprolol
262. The beta blocker with more first pass metabolism ?
A. Atenolol
B. Bisoprolol
C. Sotalol
D. Metoprolol
263. Epidemic typhus is caused by ……….
A. R. Prowazekii
B. Ricketsia typhi
C. Ricketsia ricketsia
D. Ricketsia conori
264. Pneumoconiosis takes …….years of occupational exposure .
A. 10 yrs
B. 5 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 8 yrs
265. Value of normal TIBC is ….
A. 200 mcgdl
B. 300mcgdl
C. 400 mcgdl
D. 150mcgdl
266 Residual chlorine required in swimming pool water is ……
A. 1ppm
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.4ppm
277 Residual chlorine required in daily water use in post disaster period is …
A. 1ppm
B. 2ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.5 ppm
278 Monday fever is seen in ………
A. Bagassosis
B. Bysinnosis
C. Silicosis
D. Asbestosis
279 Ratio of Rods to cones in retina is …..
A. 20 :1
B. 30:1
C. 10:1
D. 40:1
280. Muller cell is found in …..
A. Retina
B. Pancreas
C. Knee joint
D. Inner ear
281 All cells in cerebellum are inhibitory in nature except for
A. Granule cell to purkinje cell
B. Basket cell to purkinje cell
C. Granule cell
D. Purkinje cell to basket cell
282 Gait ataxia in alchoholics is seen due to damage in …..
A. Anterior vermis of cerebellum
B. Posterior vermis of cerebellum
C. Lateral cerebellum
D. Flocconodular lobe
283 coronory sinus is derived from …
A. Left horn of sinus venosus
B. Right horn of sinus venosus
C. Right common cardinal vein
D. Right anterior cardinal vein
284. Tree bark appearance of aorta is seen in …….
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Syphilis
C. Ehler Danlos syndrome
D. Aortic aneurysms rupture
286. Traumatic rupture of aorta is most common at ……
A. Distal to left subclavian artery origin
B. Ascending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Proximal to left subclavian artery origin
287. The automaticity of SA nodal cells depend on …….of action potential?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 4
D. Phase 2 and 3
288. The depolarization in SA node is due to ……
A. Voltage gated calcium channel
B. Voltage gated sodium channel
C. Voltage gated potassium channel
D. Both sodium and calcium channels
289. The maximum oxygen consumption in heart is during …
A. Isovolumetric relaxation
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Rapid Ejection
D. Ventricular filling
290. Which hypolipidemic drug may increase triglycerides ?
A. Gemfifrozil
B. Ezetimibe
C. Atorvastatin
D. Bile acid resins
291. Chromaffin cells in adrenal gland are stimulated by
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic
C. Postganglionic sympathetic
D. Postganglionic parasympathetic
292 ADH regulates blood pressure via
A. V1 receptor via cAMP
B. V2 receptor via IP3
C. V1 receptor via IP3
D. V2 receptor via cAMP
293. True in Severe magnesium deficiency …….
A. Decreases PTH secretion
B. Increases PTH secretion
C. Effect on PTH level similar to hypocalcemia
D. None
294. Antimicrosomal antibodies are associated with
A. PBC
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
C. polymyositis
D. Sjogren syndrome
295. Cinalcet is a ……
A. Calcium sensitizer
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Calcitonin antagonist
D. PTH analogue
296. True in hyperthyroidism(thyrotoxicosis) is …
A. Proximal myopathy with raised CK level
B. Distal myopathy with normal CK level
C. Proximal myopathy with normal CK level
D. Distal myopathy with raised CK level
297. Most common karyotype in complete mole is
A. 46xx
B. 46xy
C. 69xy
D. 69xx
298. The antiepileptic drug causing renal stones ?
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin
299. The drug metyrapone is used in diagnosing
A. Primary Adrenal insufficiency
B. SIADH
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Hyperaldosteronism
300. Which is not a risk factor in prinzmetal angina?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Hypertension
C. Smoking
D. A and B
301. Pupillomotor fibres are carried via Occulomotor nerve via
A. Nerve to inferior oblique
B. Nerve to superior oblique
C. Nerve to inferior rectus
D. Nerve to medial rectus
302. Recurrence rate of febrile seizure is …
A. 1 pc
B. 30 pc
C. 5 pc
D. 70 pc
303. Philip criteria used in
A. Neonatal sepsis
B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
C. Congenital heart disease
D. Delayed developmental milestones
304 Vitelline duct obliterates by
A. 7 wk
B. 12 wk
C. 4 wk
D. 20 wk
305 Most common infection in renal transplant patients ?
A. CMV
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candida
D. Cryptococcus
306 Granuloma is not a feature ?
A. Takayashu arteritis
B. Microscopic polyangiitis
C. Wegner granulomatosis
D. Churg Strauss syndrome
307. Wegners granulomatosis can be differentiated from microscopic polyangiitis in all except
A. cANCA positivity
B. Nasopharyngeal involvement
C. Granuloma
D. Small vessel vasculitis
308. One of the following condition is associated with exposure to macrolides ….
A. Hirschprung disease
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Tracheoesophageal atresia
D. None
309. Main pancreatic duct is formed by
A. Dorsal pancreatic bud
B. Ventral pancreatic bud
C. Both
D. Neural crest cell
310. Gastrosplenic ligament contains …
A. Right gastriepiploic vessels
B. Left gastroepiploic vessels
C. Splenic vessels
D. Left gastric artery
311 Pectinate Line is formed where
A. Ectoderm meets mesoderm
B. Ectoderm meets endoderm
C. Mesoderm meets endoderm
D. Endoderm meets endoderm
312 The Auerbach plexus in GI tract is situated
A. Superficial to longitudinal layer of muscle
B. Deep to circular layer of muscle
C. Between outer longitudinal and inner circular muscle layer
D. Submucosa layer
313 True is
A. More incidence of kidney stones in crohn disease than UC
B. Antisaccharomyces ab more common in UC
C. Noncaseating granuloma seen in UC
D. Rectum is spared in UC
314 The investigation of choice for colorectal Ca screening is
A. Colonoscopy
B. Fecal occult blood
C. Fecal immunochemical testing
D. CEA
315 spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed if ascetic fluid
A. ANC >125 cells/cumm
B. ANC >250cells /cumm
C. ANC >300cells/cumm
D. ANC > 350cells /cumm
316 Ground glass hepatocytes are seen in
A. Hep A
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E
317 The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis on the characteristic clinical feature is highly suggestive if serum amylase level …..
A. More than 2 Times normal upper limit
B. More than 3 Times normal upper limit
C. More than 4 Times normal upper limit
D. More than 1.5 Times normal upper limit
318 True is …..
A. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor irreversibly.
B. Pantoprazole blocks H K ATPase irreversibly
C. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor reversibly
D. B and C
319 The true statement is
A. Sulfasalazine causes irreversible oligospermia
B. NSAIDS may be chemopreventive in colorectal carcinoma
C. Enteropathic arthritis and IBD have temporal relationship in appearance.
D. Right sided colorectal carcinoma often presents with obstructing symptoms
320 All are false statement except
A. Gastrin promotes the gastric mucosa growth
B. Octreotide decreases cholelithiasis
C. Secretin stimulates the release of gastrin.
D. Gastrin release is not stimulated by histamine
321 congenital hypertrophy of pigment epithelium is seen in ….
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP
322 Brain tumors are commonly seen with
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP
323 True statement in hypervitaminosis D is ….
A. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 more , serum ALP more
B. Serum Ca less, serum PO4 more, serum ALP more
C. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 less, serum ALP more
D. Serum Ca and serum PO4 more
324. Steven Johnson syndrome involves
A. At least 1 mucous membranes
B. At least 2 mucous membranes
C. At least 3 mucous membranes
D. Mucous membranes not involved at all
325. The pathology in pemphigus vulgaris is in …..
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
326 False in blood brain barrier formation is
A. Fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
B. Basement membrane
C. Astrocyte foot process
D. None
327 Trochoid joint is …
A. Elbow joint
B. Atlantoaxial joint
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Knee joint
328 The primary brain tumor associated with precocious puberty ?
A. Pinealoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Astrocytoma
329 Adrenoleukodystrophy is due to the defect in metabolism of
A. Very long chain FA
B. Short chain FA
C. Carbohydrate
D. Aminoacid
330 Early onset glaucoma is typically seen in
A. Sturge Weber syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Von Hippel lindau syndrome
331 Ex vacuo ventriculomegaly is seen in
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Postmeningitis
C. Pseudotumor cerebri
D. Rheumatic fever
332 All are true in GBS except
A. Steroid improves the recovery
B. Destruction of Schwann cells is a typical feature
C. Normal cell count in CSF analysis
D. An example of molecular mimicry
333 False in aphasia is …
A. Repetition intact in Broca’s aphasia
B. Insight is present in Wernicke aphasia
C. Comprehension is intact in Wernicke aphasia
D. All
334 The modified sweat gland is ?
A. Meibomian gland
B. Gland of Moll
C. Zeis gland
D. All
335 Norepinephrine in brain is synthesized in
A. Locus cereleus
B. Raphe nucleus
C. Nucleus accumbens
D. Substantial nigra
336 The longest duration in sleep cycle is
A. REM
B. NREM1
C. NREM2
D. NREM3
337 The aqueous humor is produced by
A. Pigmented epithelium of ciliary body
B. Nonpigmented epithelium of ciliary body
C. Iris
D. Trabecular meshwork
338 One of the following drug is a central COMT inhibitor ?
A. Tolcapone
B. Entacapone
C. Selegiline
D. Amantadine
339 Anticholinergic don’t have role in improving …….……..in Parkinsonism.
A. Rigidity
B. Tremor
C. Bradykinesia
D. A and B
340 The antiepileptic drug associated with Steven Johnson syndrome
A. Lamotrigine
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. All
341 The antiepileptic drug associated with SIADH ..
A. Carbamazepine
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Lamotrigine
342 The antiepileptic drug with glaucoma as a side effect
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin
343 The antiepileptic with personality change as a side effect
A. Lamotrigine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Levatiracetam
D. Phenytoin
344 The ovary size in PCOS in ultrasound imaging is ……….cc.
A. >10
B. >5
C. >20
D. <10
345 The longest duration of action in antidiabetic is …….
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Metformin
C. Nateglinide
D. Glimepride
346 The shortest duration of action in antidiabetic is ……
A. Tolbutamide
B. Glipizide
C. Nateglinide
D. Metformin
347 The antidiabetic drug with Renal excretion is ……..
A. Tolbutamide
B. Chlorpropamide
C. Metformin
D. B and C
348 Danazol is used in
A. Menorrhagia
B. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Endometriosis
D. All
349 A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is to be started on the CHOPregimen, which consists of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone. Which one of the following agents is most likely to be protectiveagainst the toxicity of doxorubicin?
A. Amifostine
B. . Dexrazoxane
C. Leucovorin
D. Mesna
350. Sjogren syndrome has primarily deficiency in……….
A. Aqueous layer of tear
B. Mucus layer of tear
C. Lipid layer of tear
D. All layers
351 The crescent shaped gametocytes seen in blood film in ….
A. P vivax
B. P malaria
C. P ovale
D. P falciparum
352 Non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis is more often associated with …………..of lung.
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Squamous cell ca
D. Large cell ca
353 The most common nerve injured disputing laparoscopic hernia repair is
A. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
B. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Ilioinguinal nerve
D. Iliohypogastric nerve
354 Gynecomastia is associated more commonly with …………of lung.
A. Small cell ca
B. Large cell ca
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
355 The global demineralization is apparent on X-rays when bone density loss exceeds ……
A. 30 pc
B. 50 pc
C. 15 pc.
D. 70 pc
356 The drug of choice in bacillary angiomatosis is ……
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ketoconazole
357 The diagnosis of metabolic syndrome doesn’t consider …….
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Blood pressure
D. Fasting glucose
358 The most common finding in paget disease of bone is
A. Bone pain and hearing loss
B. Asymptomatic
C. Entrapment neuropathy
D. Increasing size of hat
359 The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Parathyroid carcinoma
D. Pituitary tumor
360 The most common cause of hyperaldosteronism ?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal carcinoma
D. Adrenal insufficiency
361 The test not used as test of cure in H pylori ?
A. Fecal antigen test
B. Urea breath test
C. Serological test
D. Urease test
362 The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is
A. Alcohol
B. Gallstones
C. Drugs
D. Hypertriglyceridemia
363 The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is …
A. Alcohol
B. Drugs
C. Gallstones
D. Trauma
364 The gallstone ileus risk may be seen with the size of gall stone greater than
A. 2.5 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 3.5 cm
365 The hummingbird sign is seen in
A. Parkinsonism
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Progressive supranuclear palsy
D. Pinealoma
366 The hypoechoic lesion is seen in USG liver with metastasis of …..
A. Colon
B. RCC
C. Thyroid ca
D. Breast ca
367 A microbiology student cultured a specimen for isolation of an organism. He found that the bacteria grew as metallic green shin colonies in eosin methylene blue agar. Name the most probable organism ?
A. Klebsiella
B. E. coli
C. Enterobacter
D. Serratia
368 Not an encapsulated organism ?
A. N. Meningitidis
B. Salmonella
C. N. Gonorrhoea
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
369 All are true in bacterial vaginosis except …..
A. Clue cells are characteristic feature
B. Fishy smell grayish vaginal discharge
C. Not sexually transmitted
D. Increased leukocytes in the discharge
All are true in salmonella typhi except
A. The humans are reservoirs
B. Hematogenous spread is very rare
C. The monocytic response is primarily seen.
D. Fecooral transmission
371 The palms and soles are spared in …
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Coxsackie virus A infection
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Secondary syphilis
372 The rash starts typically from wrist and ankles in …..
A. Measles
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Endemic typhus
373 All are true in congenital syphilis except
A. Long maxilla
B. Saber shins
C. Mulberry molars
D. Saddle nose
374 No rash and no vector is in
A. Ehrlicosis
B. Q fever
C. Chicken pox
D. Hand foot mouth disease
375 The rickettsiae that can be cultured is …..
a. Ricketsia Quintana
b. Ricketsia prowazeki
c. Ricketsia typhi
d. Ricketsia ricketsia
376 The dimorphic fungi not living as an yeast in the human tissue ……
A. Coccioidiodes
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Cryptocccus neoformans
377 Desert rheumatism in mycoses is a feature of ………
A. Coccidioides
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Blastomycosis
378 The parasitic infestation with periorbital edema, myalgias is ………
A. Trichinella
B. Echinococcus
C. Taenia solium
D. Strongyloides
379 The parasite causing dimorphic anemia …..
a. Anclyostoma
b. Round worm
c. Trichuris
d. Enterobius
380 The parasite causing pulmonary hypertension is
A. Schistosomiasis hematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Schistosoma japonicum
381 The hepatitis B is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Both
D. Lichen planus
382 The hepatitis C is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Porphyria cutanea tarda
D. None
383 The macrovesicular steatosis is seen in ……..
A. HepA
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E
384 Not an enveloped virus
A. Hep A
B. HepB
C. Hep C
D. Hep D
385 Ebola virus is …
A. Filo virus
B. Flavi virus
C. Hepadna virus
D. Herpes virus
386 About Zika virus , false statement is ……
A. Is a flavi virus
B. Causes miscarriages and congenital microcephay
C. Transmitted by Aedes mosquito
D. No sexual transmission
387 Transmitted by ixodes tick …
A. Lyme disease
B. Babesiosis
C. Anaplasmosis
D. All
388 Disease transmitted by Reduviid bug …..
A. Chagas’ disease
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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