MCQ PG

MCQ s collection
Q. 1. ALL OR NONE EFFECTS OF TERATOGENICITY IS SEEN IN .......AGE OF GESTATION?
A. 1 - 3 WKS
B. 3 TO 8 WKS
C 8WKS TO 16 WKS
D 16 WKS ONWARD


Q.2.THE CRANIOCAUDAL ARRANGEMENT OF BODY PARTS IS MAINTAINED BY ........GENE
HOMEBOX GENE
FGF
SONIC HEDGEHOG GENE
WNT7 GENE

Q.3. DIABETIC GLOMERULOPATHY , ONE IS TRUE?
A NONENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
B ENZYMATIC GLYCOSYLATION OF GBM
C LEAST COMMON CAUSE OF CRF
D THINNING OF GBM.

Q.4.STONE ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASE PH IN URINE.
URIC ACID
CYSTINE
CALCIUM OXALATE
CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

Q.5.URIC ACID CRYSTAL IN URINE IN URIC ACID STONES ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE

Q.6.URIC ACID CRYSTALS IN GOUT ARE
NEEDLE SHAPE
RHOMBOID SHAPE
TRAPEZOID SHAPE
HEXAGONAL SHAPE

Q.7. ONE OF FOLLOWING IS ASSOCIATED WITH WT2 MUTATION ?
WAGR COMPLEX
BECKWITH WEIDMAN SYNDROME
DENYS DRASCH SYNDROME
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS

Q.8.SCHISTOSOMIASIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH....
SQ CELL CA OF BLADDER
TRANSITIONAL CELL CA OF BLADDER
ADENO A OF BLADDER
ALL

Q.9? RCC  ARISES FROM
PCT CELLS
DCT CELLS
COLLECTING DUCT
LOOP OF HENLE


Q.10.BASKET WEAVING APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN ......IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY

Q.11WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IS SEEN IN ...... IN ........?
SLE; LIGHT MICROSCOPY
ALPORT : IMMUNOFLUROSCENCE
SLE ; ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
ALPORT ; LIGHT MICROSCOPY


12.WIRE LOOPING OF CAPILLARIES IN KIDNEY IS SEEN IN .......
ALPORT SYNDROME
SLE
PSGN
RHEUMATIC FEVER


13. FULL  VISUAL ACUITY OBTAINED AT ...YRS.
8
4
2
6

14. THE TOTAL NUMBER OF CARDINAL POSITION OF GAZE ARE
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12

15. ACCOMMODATION REFLEX FULLY DEVELOPED AT ....AGE .
A. 6 MONTHS
B. 12 MONTHS
C. 4 MONTHS
D. 8 MONTHS



16. MOST COMMMON SITE OF SALMONELLA OSTEOMYELITIS IN SICKLE CELL PATIENTS ?
DIAPHYSIS
METAPHYSIS
EPIPHYSIS



17. COLLECTING DUCT DERIVED FROM
MESONEPHROS
URETERIC BUD
METANEPHRIC MESENCHYME
UROGENITAL SINUS



18. DRUG ASSO WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA ? 
CEPHALOSPORIN 
MACROLIDES
TETRACYCLINES
SULPHONAMIDES


19. SEROTONIN SECRETED BY
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN CELL
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN LIKE CELL
PARIETAL CELL
D CELL


20. PARAMESONEPHRIC DUCT CONTRIBUTES TO
UPPER THIRD OF VAGINA
LOWER THIRD OF VAGINA
UPPER TWO THIRD
LOWER TWO THIRD


21. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HEPATITIS DOESN’T TRANSMIT SEXUALLY?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS E
D. HEPATITIS A AND E.

22.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF GULMINANT HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D

23. MOST  COMMON CAUSE OF CHRONICITY IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS D

24. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF CARRIER IN VIRAL HEPATITIS?
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E





25. DENSE DEPOSIT DISEASE IS
A. TYPE 1 MPGN
B. TYPE 2MPGN
C. MESANGIOPROLIFERATIVE GN
D. CRESCENTIC GLOMERULONEPHRITIS

26. RISK OF TRANSMISSION TO FETUS IN HBSAG POSITIVE MOTHER WITH HBEAG POSITIVE STATUS IS ….
A. 20 PC
B. 90 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 50 PC

27. MOST COMMON PERINATAL TRANSMISSION IN VIRAL HEPATITIS IS
A. HEPATITIS A
B. HEPATITIS B
C. HEPATITIS C
D. HEPATITIS E

28. FETAL MOVEMENT STARTS AT
A. 8 WKS
B. 6 WKS
C. 18 WKS
D. 16 WKS

29. WHICH IS NOT TRIAD OF CRS?
A. MENTAL RETARDATION
B. HEARING LOSS
C. HEART DEFECTS
D. CONGENITAL CATARACT

30. MEGALOCORNEA IS CORNEAL DIAMETER …..
A. MORE THAN 13MM
B. MORE THAN 11 MM
C. MORE THAN 15 MM
D. MORE THAN 8 MM



31.GENITAL STRUCTURES CAN BE IDENTIFIED AT
A. 7 WKS
B. 10 WKS
C. 12 WKS
D. 8 WKS

32. QUADRATE LOBE OF LIVER REPRESENTS ……..SEGMENT?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 1


33. THE KILLED VACCINE WHICH IS CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY?
A. RABIES
B. SALK
C. MENINGOCOCCAL
D. HEPATITIS B

34. THE LIVE VACCINE WHICH IS NOT CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY ?
A. RUBELLA
B. TYPHOID
C. YELLOW FEVER
D. MEASLES

35. THE ENDEMICITY OF MENINGOCOCCUS MENINGITIS IS ……..
A. 0.01 PC
B. 0.1PC
C. 1 PC
D. 0.5 PC



36.HCG  INCREASES IN ………
A. DOWN SYNDROME
B. EDWARD SYNDROME
C. PATHAU SYNDROME
D ALL


37.THECA INTERNA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO ……
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE

38. GRANULOSA CELL IS HOMOLOGOUS TO
A. SERTOLI CELL
B. LEYDIG CELL
C. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
D. NONE





39. TOUGHEST MUCOSA OF THE BODY IS …..
A. ESOPHAGUS
B. STOMACH
C. SMALL INTESTINE
D. COLON

40. WHICH ENTERS THROUGH VENACAVAL OPENING OF DIAPHRAGM  ?
A. RIGHT PHRENIC NERVE
B. LEFT PHRENIC NERVE
C. RIGHT VAGUS NERVE
D. LEFT VAGUS NERVE

41. AORTIC ARCH IS DERIVED FROM ……PHARYNGEAL  ARCH ?
A. FIRST
B. SECOND
C. THIRD
D. FOURTH


42. MOST SUSCEPTIBLE NERVE FIBRE AMONG FOLLOWING TO HYPOXIA IS ?
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. NONE

43.MAXIMUM WATER REABSORPTION IN KIDNEY OCCURS FROM …….?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. LOOP OF HENLE

44.THE MAJOR HORMONE PRODUCED BY PLACENTA ?
A. ESTRIOL
B. ESTRONE
C. ESTRADIOL
D. INSULIN GROWTH FACTOR

45. THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN IN POSTMENOPAUSAL WOMEN ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRADIOL
C. ESTRIOL
D. PROGESTERONE

46.THE PREDOMINANT ESTROGEN PRODUCED FROM OVARY IS ?
A. ESTRONE
B. ESTRIOL
C. ESTRADIOL
D. ANDROSTENEDIONE

47. BOTH NUCLEAR AND CYTOPLASMIC INCLUSION BODIES ARE FOUND IN …..?
A. CMV
B. MEASLES
C. CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
D. ADENOVIRUS

48. PRIMARY OOCYTE IS ARRESTED IN ………STAGE ?
     A. PROPHASE I OF MEIOSIS I
     B. PROPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
     C. METAPHASE II OF MEIOSIS II
     D. ANAPHASE  OF MEIOSIS II

49. PEAK LEVEL OF HCG IN PREGNANCY  IS ATTAINED AT……?
A. 8 TO 10 WKS
B. 6 TO 8 WKS
C. 10 TO 12 WKS
D. 12 TO 14 WKS

50. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING HAS GREATEST POTENCY?
A. DHT
B. TESTOSTERONE
C. ANDROSTENEDIONE
D. ALL EQUAL




51. RISK OF CHORIOCARCINOMA FOLLOWING COMPLETE MOLE IS …?
A. 2 PC
B. 4 PC
C. 8 PC
D. 15 PC

52. NEGRI  BODIES ARE
A. INTRACYTOPLASMIC BASOPHILIC
B. INTRANUCLEAR EOSINOPHILIC
C. INTRACYTOPLASMIC EOSINOPHILIC
D. INTRANUCLEAR BASOPHILIC

53. CLINICAL  INCUBATION PERIOD OF FILARIASIS IS
A. 8 TO 16 MONTHS
B. 6 TO 12 MONTHS
C. 3 TO 6 MONTHS
D. 1 TO 2 MONTHS




54.PROTOZOAN STAGE IN TRANSMISSION OF MALARIA  VIA BLOOD TRANSFUSION IS
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. GAMETOCYTES
C. SPOROZOITE
D. MEROZOITE

55.CLINICAL SYMPTOMS CORRELATE WITH RELEASE OF ……..STAGE OF MALARIAL PARASITE IN BLOOD ?
A. TROPHOZOITE
B. SPOROZOITE
C. MEROZOITES
D. GAMETOCYTES






56.AN AREA IS DECLARED RABIES FREE IF
A. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 1 YR
B. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 2 YRS
C. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 5 YRS
D. NO CASES IN HUMANS AND ANIMALS FOR 4 YRS


57.APPARENT TO INAPPARENT CASES RATIO IN JE IS
A. 1:100 to 1:300
B. 1:300 TO 1:1000
C. 1:1000 TO 1: 2000
D. 1:50 to 1:100



58.CASE FATALITY RATE OF JE IS
A. 30 PC
B. 50 PC
C. 70 PC
D. 80 PC

59.PERCENTAGE OF CASES OF JE IN CHILDREN
A. 85
B. 60
C. 50
D. 95

60.CHOLESTEROL CRYSTAL ARE SEEN IN
A. EPENDYMOMA
B. MEDULLOBLASTOMA
C. CRANIPHARYNGIOMA
D. ASTROCYTOMA

61.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS?
A. S AUREUS
B. S EPIDERMIDIS
C. STREP VIRIDANS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS

62.RENAL STONES ASSOCIATED WITH …..
A. PROXIMAL RTA
B. DISTAL RTA
C. HYPERKALEMIC RTA
D. NONE



63.BROCA’S AREA IS LOCATED IN
A. POSTERIOR  SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
B. POSTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS
C. ANTERIOR SUPERIOR TEMPORAL GYRUS
D. ANTERIOR PART OF INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS

64.WHICH DOESN’T PASS THROUGH SINUS OF MORGAGNI ?
A. LEVATO VELLI PALATI
B. AUDITORY TUBE
C. ASCENDING PALATINE ARTERY
D. TENSOR VELLI PALATI

65.WHICH ONE IS NOT A BOUNDARY OF ANATOMICAL SNUFFBOX ?
A. EXTENSOR CARPI RADIALIS
B. ABDUCTOR POLLICIS LONGUS
C. EXTENSOR POLLICIS LONGUS
D. EXTENSOR POLLICIS BREVIS

66. DORELLOS  CANAL ENCOMPASSES …..
A. ABDUCENS NERVE
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. TROCHLEAR
D. HYPOGLOSSAL


67. PERINEAL BODY IS FORMED BY ……MUSCLES.
A. 9
B. 6
C. 3
D. 8

68. RICKETSIAE PROWAZEKII IS CAUSATIVE AGENT OF
A. EPIDEMIC TYPHUS
B. ENDEMIC TYPHUS
C. INDIAN TICK TYPHUS
D. MURINE TYPHUS

69.RMSF IS CAUSED BY …..
A. R PROWAZEKKII
B. R. RICKETTSIA
C. R. TYPHI
D. RICKETTSIAE TSUSUGAMASHI

 70.   WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL AFFERENT ?
A. OPTIC NERVE
B. OLFACTORY NERVE
C. TRIGEMINAL NERVE
D. ABDUCENS NERVE

71. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPECIAL VISCERAL EFFERENT ?
A. ABDUCENS
B. OCCULOMOTOR
C. HYPOGLOSAAL
D. MANDIBULAR



72. DURING THYROIDECTOMY PROCEDURE  ?
A. TRUE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
B. TRUE CAPSULE IS LEFT BEHIND
C. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS REMOVED
D. BOTH TRUE AND FALSE CAPSULE IS RETAINED


73. THE LATERAL ROTATOR OF SHOULDER IS
A. TERES MINOR
B. TERES MAJOR
C. SUBSCAPULARIS
D. NONE


  74.   MYELINATION IS COMPLETE BY THE AGE OF …….?
A. 5 YRS
B. 7 YRS
C. 10 YRS
D. 2 YRS

75. THE NUMBER OF ALVEOLI REACHES ADULT VALUE AT THE AGE OF ……?
A. 6 YRS
B. 4 YRS
C. 8 YRS
D. 10 YRS








76. THE CILIA TERMINATES IN …..
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT

77. CILIATED CUBOIDAL EPITHELIUM IS FOUND IN ……
A. BRONCHI
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT


78. SECOND WIND PHENOMENON IS SEEN IN ……
A. VON GIERKE DISEASE
B. MC ARDLE DISEASE
C CORI DISEASE
D POMPE DISEASE



79. MALLORY BODY IS
A. PRODUCT OF LYSOSOMAL DEGRADATION
B INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS
C FAT DROP,ETC IN HEPATOCYTES
D ALL

       80. WHICH IS LEAST LIKELY IN PITUITARY ADENOMA ?
LACTOTROPH
SOMATOTROPH
CORTCOTROPH
THYROTROPHS


81. WHICH ONE HAS HIGH RISK OF OXALATE STONE ?
A. ENFLURANE
B. METHOXYFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. SEVOFLURANE


82. WHICH ONE IS SPORADIC CONGENITAL ?
A. STURGE WEBER SYNDROME
B. TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS
C. VON HIPPEL LINDAU
D. NEUROFIBROMATOSIS

83. PULMONARY ARTERIES DERIVED FROM ? ARCH .
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

84. LAST TO CANALIZE IN URINARY SYSTEM IS
A. URETEROPELVIC JUNCTION
B. LOWER URETER
C. COLLECTING DUCT
D. CALYCES



85. WHICH ONE IS MATURE DEFENSE ?
A. SUPPRESSION
B. PROJECTION
C. RATIONALIZATION
D. DENIAL

86. CLARA CELLS ARE MAXIMUM IN
A. RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLE
B. TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE
C. SEGMENTAL BRONCHI
D. ALVEOLAR DUCT


87. FACTOR VIII IS MARKER OF
A. ANGIOSARCOMA
B. RHABDOMYOSARCOMA
C. HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA
D. MELANOMA

88. SIADH CAUSING ANTIEPILEPTIC?
A. CARBAMAZEPINE
B. VALPROATE
C. TIAGABINE
D. LAMOTRIGINE


89. SYRINGOMYELIA IS MOST COMMON AT ......
A. C5 C6
B. C6 C7
C. C7 C8
D. C8 T1

90. LESION OF OPTIC CHIASMA CAUSES
A. BITEMPORAL HETERONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
B. BITEMPORAL HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA
C. LEFT NASAL HEMIANOPIA
D. RIGHT NASAL HEMIANOPIA


91. CORTICOSPINAL TRACT ARISES FROM ?
A. EXTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER
B. INTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
C. EXTERNAL PYRAMIDAL LAYER
D. INTERNAL GRANULAR LAYER


92. AICA LESION , NOT TRUE IS
A. VOMITING
B. DROOPING OF ANGLE OF MOUTH
C. DYSPHAGIA
D. HORNER SYNDROME

93. WALLENBERG SYNDROME IS DUE TO LESION IN
A. AICA
B. PICA
C. ANTERIOR SPINAL ARTERY
D. BASILAR ARTERY

94. SLAP CHEEK APPEARANCE IS IN
A. FIRST DZ
B. THIRD
C. FIFTH
D. SIXTH

95. FIRST SYMPTOM OF SYMPATHETIC OPTHALMITIS ?
A. NEAR ACCOMMODATION DIFFICULT
B. PHOTOPHOBIA
C. LACRIMATION
D. PAIN

96. WHITE UVEITIS SEEN IN
A. AS
B. JRA
C. SARCOIDOSIS
D. NONE


97. LUNG METS IN CHORIOCARCINOMA IMPLIES STAGE
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4


98. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO PCO2 TILL ……..mmHg
A. 90
B. 80
C. 100
D. 70

99. CPP INCREASES IN RESPONSE TO HYPOXIA WHEN PO2 IS LESS THAN ………mmHg .
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 40

100. NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS IN SCHIZOPHRENIA ARE MEDIATED IN
A. MESOCORTICAL PATHWAY
B. MESOLIMBIC
C. NIGROSTRIATAL
D. TUBEROINFUNDIBULAR

101. HUNTINGTON CHOREA
A MORE DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
B LESS DOPAMINE , LESS GABA
C LESS ACH , MORE DOPAMINE, LESS GABA
D LESS DOPAMINE LESS ACH LESS GABA

102. PAIN TEMPERATURE RELAYS TO ...........OF THALAMUS.
A. VPML
B. VPLN
C. MEDIAL GENICULATE BODY
D. NONE

103. DURA IS DERIVED FROM
A. NEURAL CREST
B. NEUROECTODERM
C. MESODERM
D. ENDODERM

104. NONDESTRUCTIVE VEGETATION IN HEART VALVES  IS SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B SLE
C BOTH
D RHEUMATIC FEVER


105. MURAL INVOLVEMENT IS MOSTLY SEEN IN
A. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
B NBTE
C RHEUMATIC FEVER
D LIBMAN SACK ENDOCARDITIS




106. CARCINOID SYNDROME IS ASSO WITH
A. TR
B. TS
C. AR
D. MS

107. WHICH IS MITOCHONDRIAL ENZYME?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. GGT
D. ALP

108. LONG STANDING MULTINODULAR GOITER , WHICH IS COMMON
A. PAPILLARY
B. FOLLICULAR
C. ANAPLASTIC
D. MEDULLARY


109. FALSE ABOUT POLYMYALGIA RHEUMATICA IS
A. RAISED ESR
B. RAISED CRP
C. RAISED CK
D. NORMAL CK

110. WHICH IS A PROGNOSTIC MARKER OF SLE ?
A. ANTI ANA
B. ANTI DSDNA
C. ANTI SMITH
D. ANTI HISTONE

111. EWING SARCOMA TRANSLOCATION IS
A. 9 22
B. 11 22
C. 8 22
D. 15 17

112. CORRECT SEQUENCE IN HB ELECTROPHORESIS.
A. HBA HBF HBS HBC
B. HBA HBS HBF HBC
C. HBC HBF HBS HBA
D. HBA HBC HBS HBF


113. HBH IS
DELETION OF
A. 1 ALPHA
B. 2 ALPHA
C. 3 ALPHA
D. 4 ALPHA

114. HBC IS
SUBSTITUTION OF GLUTAMIC ACID BY
A LEUCINE
B LYSINE
C VALINE
D THREONINE

115. WHICH IS NOT CAUSE OF MICROANGIPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA . ?
A SLE
B TTP
C DIC
D PROSTHETIC CARDIAC VALVES




116. RINGED SIDEROBLAST IS SEEN IN
BONE MARROW
LIVER
SPLEEN
PERIPHERAL SMEAR

117. DEGMACYTE SEEN IN
G6PD DEF
LIVER DZ
END STAGE RENAL DZ
THALASSEMIA


118. BONE MARROW ERYTHROPOIESIS STARSTS FROM ....
10 WKS
18 WKS
32 WKS
6 WKS

119. WHICH IS SECRETED BY DENSE GRANULES OF PLATELET ?
ADP
FIBRINOGEN
FIBRONECTIN
VWF

120. LIPID A OF LPS OF BACTERIA BINDS WITH .......ON MACROPHAGE.
A. CD 14
B. CD 28
C. CD 4
D. CD 8



121. CLOCK FACE CHROMATIN WITH ECCENTRIC NUCLEUS SEEN IN
A. PLASMA CELL
B. NEUTROPHIL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. MACROPHAGE



122. FROSTED GLASS CYTOPLASM SEEN IN
A. NEUTROPHIL
B. MONOCYTES
C. EOSINOPHIL
D. BASOPHIL




123. PULMONARY ARTERIAL HTN IS ASSOCIATED WITH …..?
A. BMPR2
B. BETA CATENIN
C. HOMEBOX GENE
D. P53

124. THE SEQUENCE IN NATURAL HISTORY OF PNEUMONIA ?
A. CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
B. CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
C RED HEPATIZATION CONGESTION GRAY HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION
D GRAY HEPATIZATION CONGESTION RED HEPATIZATION RESOLUTION

125. WHICH ONE AFFECTS LOWER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. ASBESTOSIS
B . SILICOSIS
C. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS
D. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA



126. WHICH ONE AFFECTS UPPER LOBE MOSTLY ?
A. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C BERYLLIOSIS
D . B AND C

127. WHICH ONE IS RELATED TO SMOKING ?
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. PANACINAR EMPHYSEMA
C. MESOTHELIOMA
D. ADENOCARCINOMA LUNG

128. SMOKING IS NOT A RISK FACTOR IN ….
A. CENTRIACINAR EMPHYSEMA
B. MESOTHELIOMA
C SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
D OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA

129. ASBESTOSIS IS MORE OFTEN ASSOCIATED WITH …?
A. MESOTHELIOMA
B. BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA
C. TUBERCULOSIS
D. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

130. IVORY WHITE CALCIFIED PLEURAL PLAQUES ABOVE THE DIAPHRAGM IS SEEN IN ……
A. ASBESTOSIS
B. SILICOSIS
C. BERYLLIOSIS
D. COAL WORKER PNEUMOCONIOSIS


131. THE BEST PROGNOSIS IN LUNG CA IS IN
A SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B ADENO CA
C BRONCHIAL CARCINOID
D SMALL CELL CA


132.  LUNG CA WITH LEAST METASTASIS ?
A. LARGE CELL CA
B. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
C. SMALL CELL CA
D BRONCHIAL CARCINOID


133. WHICH ONE IS PERIPHERAL IN LOCATION ?
A. SQUAMOUS CELL CA
B. ADENO CARCINOMA
C. LARGE CELL CARCINOMA
D. B AND C


134. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN ARE
A. NONAPEPTIDE
B DECAPEPTIDE
C PENTAPEPTIDE
D TETRA PEPTIDE

135. VASOPRESSIN AND OXYTOCIN DIFFERS IN AMINO ACID IN ……….
A. POSITION 3 AND 8
B POSITION 2 AND 6
C POSITION 3 AND 6
D POSITION 4 AND 8


136.  MAXIMUM K CONCENTRATION IS FOUND IN ……
A. COLONIC FLUID
B SALIVA
C GASTRIC JUICE
D PANCREATIC JUICE

138. MAXIMUM POTASSIUM SECRETION IS FOUND IN ….
A. SALIVA
B. PANCREATIC JUICE
C. COLONIC FLUID
D GASTRIC JUICE

139. MAXIMUM OXYGEN CONSUMPTION IN BODY AFTER LIVER IS BY ?
A. KIDNEY
B HEART
C SKELETAL MUSCLE
D BRAIN


140 HISTONE SYNTHESIS OCCURS IN ……
A. G2 PHASE
B. S PHASE
C. G1 PHASE
D. M PHASE

141. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCESS MAKES DNA ACTIVE ?
A. DNA METHYLATION
B. DNA ACETYLATION
C. HISTONE METHYLATION
D. ALL



142. . HISTONES CONTAIN ………AMINOACID ?

A. LYSINE
B .ARGININE
C BOTH
D HISTIDINE

143. RIBAVIRIN ACTS ON ……
A. IMP DEHYDROGENASE
B. DHF REDUCTASE
C. PRPP SYNTHETASE
D. DIHYDROOROTATE DEHYDROGENASE

144.  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISRUPTS BOTH PURINE AND PYRIMIDINE SYNTHESIS ?
A. MYCOPHENOLATE MOFETIL
B. HYDROXYUREA
C. FLUROURACIL
D. LEFLUNOMIDE

145. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING AA HAS SINGLE CODON ?
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. LEUCINE
C. GLYCINE
D. LYSINE

146. WHICH ENZYME JOINS OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS DURING DNA REPLICATION ?

A. DNA LIGASE
B. DNA POLYMERASE I
C. DNA POLYMERASE III
D. DNA TOPOISOMERASE I

147. DUCHENNES MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY AND TAY SACHS DISEASE ARE GOOD EXAMPLES OF …… …..?
A. POINT MISSENSE MUTATION
B FRAMESHIFT MUTATION
C. NONSENSE MUTATION
D. SPLICE SITE MUTATION

148. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR OCCURS IN …….PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M

149. LYNCH SYNDROME IS THE RESULT OF DEFECTIVE ……?
A. NUCLEOTIDE EXCISION REPAIR
B. BASE EXCISION REPAIR
C. MISMATCH REPAIR
D. ALL OF ABOVE

150. SHORTEST PHASE OF CELL CYCLE IS ….?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M

151. RBCS ARE IN ………..PHASE OF CELL CYCLE ?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. G0

152. OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA HAS MOST COMMONLY AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT FORM INHERITANCE WITH ……..
A. DEFECTIVE TYPE 1 COLLAGEN.
B. DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
C. DEFECTIVE TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
D. BOTH DEFECTIVE AND DEFICIENT TYPE 1 COLLAGEN

153. MENKE DISEASE IS DUE TO DEFECT IN ……
A. ATP7A
B. ATP7B
C. BOTH
D. COL5A1

154. THE  ROLE OF USE OF AZITHROMYCIN IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS IS ….
A. ANTIBACTERIAL
B. ANTI INFLAMMATORY
C. NO ROLE IN THE DISEASE
D. PROPHYLACTIC ROLE

155. WHICH AGENT SLOWS THE DISEASE PROGRESSION IN CF ?
A. IBUPROFEN
B. AZITHROMYCIN
C. HYPERTONIC SALINE NEBULISATION
D. CHEST PHYSIOTHERAPY

156. HEMOCHROMATOSIS IS A CONDITION OF ……..INHERITANCE ?
A. AD
B AR
C X-R
D XD



157. ARRANGE THE AUTOSOMAL TRISOMIES IN ORDER OF DECREASING  INCIDENCE .?
A. DOWN EDWARD PATAU
B. DOWN PATAU  EDWARD
C. EDWARD PATAU  DOWN
D. PATAU EDWARD DOWN

158. QUAD SCREEN IN SECOND TRIMESTER IN EDWARD SYNDROME  DIFFERS FROM DOWN SYNDROME IN …..
A. DECREASED BETA HCG
B. INCREASED AFP
C INCREASED ESTRIOL
D INCREASED INHIBIN A

159. VITAMIN THAT CAN BE USED FOR TREATMENT OF ANXIETY AND DEPRESSION ?
A. VIT B1
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B9
D. VIT B12

160. VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH PHOTOTHERAPY PROCEDURE IN INFANTS IS ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. FOLIC ACID
D. VIT B6





161. NIACIN OVERDOSE CAUSES FLUSHING IN FACE. THE FLUSHING CAN BE AVOIDED BY ……..
A. ASPIRIN
B. CHLORPHENIRAMINE
C. PHENYLEPHRINE
D. RANITIDINE

162. WHICH VITAMIN CONSUMPTION MAY NEED CAUTIOUS  RESTRICTION IN HEREDITARY HEMOCHROMATOSIS?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN C
C. VITAMIN K
D. VITAMIN B9

163. PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI IS ASSOCIATED WITH ……….VITAMIN ?
A. VITAMIN A
B. VITAMIN D
C. VITAMIN E
D. VITAMIN K

164. THE EXCESS INTAKE OF ………..CAN LEAD TO NEPHROLITIASIS ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B5
C. VIT B1
D. VIT A


165. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING VITAMIN IS USEFUL IN TREATMENT OF METHEMOGLOBINEMIA ?
A. VIT C
B. VIT B2
C. VIT E
D. NONE

166. DISULFIRAM ACTS ON ………..ENZYME IN………?
A. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL
B. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
C. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE; MITOCHONDRIA
D. ACETALDEHYDE DEHYDROGENASE; CYTOSOL

167. WHICH METABOLIC PROCESS OCCURS IN MITOCHONDRIA?
A. FA SYNTHESIS
B. KETOGENESIS
C. GLYCOLYSIS
D. HMP SHUNT PATHWAY

168. THE AGENT USED IN METHANOL POISONING IS ….
A. FOMEPIZOLE
B. NALTREXONE
C. NALEMFINE
D. FLUMAZENIL


169. LIPID LADEN MACROPHAGES WITH CRUMPLED TISSUE PAPER APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN …..
A. GAUCHER DISEASE
B. TAYSACH DISEASE
C. NIEMAN PICK DISEASE
D. HURLER SYNDROME







170. MOST COMMON ORGANISM RETRIEVED IN CYSTIC FIBROSIS  PATIENT FROM AIRWAY TRACT IN CHILDREN IS ……..
A. S AUREUS
B. PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA
C. HEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE
D. BURKHOLDERIA CEPACIA

171. GARGOYLISM IS TYPICALLY SEEN IN ….
A. HURLER SYNDROME
B. WILLIAMS SYNDROME
C. CRI DU CHAT SYNDROME
D. ANGELMAN SYNDROME

172. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ACTS ON NMDA RECEPTOR.?
A. DEXTROMETHORPHAN
B. KETAMINE
C. A AND B
D KETOTIFEN

173. MEPERIDINE INDUCED SEIZURE CAN BE TREATED WITH ……..
A. NALOXONE
B. DIAZEPAM
C. BOTH
D. NALTREXONE

174. WHICH INCREASES THE DURATION OF CHLORIDE CHANNEL OPENING FOR ITS ACTION ?
A. BENZODIAZEPINES
B. BARBITURATES
C. OPIOIDS
D. GABAPENTIN

175. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SEDATIVE HYPNOTIC DRUG REACHES PLATEAU IN CNS DEPRESSION ?
A. ALCOHOL
B. BARBITURATES
C. BENZODIAZEPINES
D. ALL

176. BACLOFEN ACTS ON …
A. GABAA RECEPTOR
B. GABAB RECEPTOR
C. BOTH
D. MA RECEPTOR


177. BENZODIAZEPINES ACT VIA
A. PROLONGING DURATION OF CL  CHANNEL OPENING
B. INACTIVATING ACTIVATED NA CHANNEL
C. INCREASES THE FREQUENCY OF CL CHANNEL OPENING
D. INACTIVATING THE T TYPE CALCIUM CHANNEL







178. CYANIDE ACTS ON ………COMPLEX IN ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN.
A. COMPLEX 1
B. COMPLEX 2
C. COMPLEX 3
D. COMPLEX 4

179. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH PAN ?
A. HEP A
B. HEP B
C. HEP C
D. HEP D

180. VIRAL HEPATITIS ASSOCIATED WITH METABOLIC SYNDROME ?
A. HEP E
B. HEP C
C. HEP B
D. HEP A

181. WHICH ZONE OF LIVER MOSTLY CONCERNS DETOXIFICATION AND LIPID METABOLISM ?
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. ALL EQUALLY

182. THE CELLS INVOLVED IN SCARRING OF THE LIVER IN CHRONIC CIRRHOSIS ARE STELLATE CELLS. THESE CELLS RENDER  SUCH EFFECT DUE TO RELEASE OF ………..
A. TYPE 1 COLLAGEN
B. TYPE 2 COLLAGEN
C. TYPE 3 COLLAGEN
D. TYPE 4 COLLAGEN

183. THE ARTERY  FROM AORTA THAT SUPPLIES ADRENAL GLAND  IS …….
A. SUPERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
B. MIDDLE SUPRARENAL ARTERY
C. INFERIOR SUPRARENAL ARTERY
D. ALL


184. FUNDUS OF STOMACH IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. SHORT GASTRIC ARTERIES
B. LEFT GASTRIC ARTERY
C. RIGHT GASTRIC ARTERY
D. LEFT GASTROEPIPLOIC ARTERY


185. MELATONIN IS PRODUCED FROM ……
A. TRYPTOPHAN
B. TYROSINE
C. PHENYLALANINE
D. PHENYLALANINE

186. CORTISOL ENHANCES THE ACTIVITY OF ……….ENZYME IN TYROSINE METABOLISM ?
A. TYROSINE HYDROXYLASE
B. DOPA DECARBOXYLASE
C. PNMT
D. DOPAMINE BETA HYDROXYLASE

187. DOPAMINE IS CONVERTED TO NOREPINEPHRINE BY ACTION OF DOPAMINE BETAHYDROXYLASE IN PRESENCE OF PRIMARILY ………………AS A COFACTOR.
A. PLP
B. VIT C
C. METHYLCOBALAMIN
D. TETRAHYDROBIOPTERIN

188.  PRECURSOR OF CATECHOLAMINE IS ……
A. PHENYLALANINE
B. TYROSINE
C. BOTH A AND B
D. TRYPTOPHAN

189. YELLOW FEVER VIRUS IS SEEN TO HAVE TYPICALLY NECROSIS IN ………….OF LIVER.
A. ZONE 1
B. ZONE 2
C. ZONE 3
D. NONE

190. THE TIME OF  SCREENING OF PHENYLKETONURIA IN NEWBORN IS ……..
A. 12 HRS
B. 24 HRS
C. 48 HRS
D. IMMEDIATELY AFTER BIRTH

191. TRUE REGARDING GLYCOGEN METABOLISM IS …….
A. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
B. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS INACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATED STATE
C. GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE IS ACTIVE IN DEPHOSPHORYLATION STATE
D. GLYCOGEN PHOSPHORYLASE IS INACTIVE IN PHOSPHORYLATION STATE

192. HYPOKETOTIC HYPOGLYCEMIA IS SEEN IN ………
A. INSULIN DEFICIENCY
B. CARNITINE DEFICIENCY
C. STARVATION
D. INSULINOMA

193. URINE FOR KETONE BODIES DETECT …………
A. ACETOACETATE
B. ACETONE
C. BETA HYDROXYBUTYRATE
D. A AND C

194. APO E IS NOT PRESENT IN …….
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. CHYLOMICRON
D. CHYLOMICRON REMNANT

195. APOB48 IS PRESENT IN
A. CHYLOMICRON
B. VLDL
C. HDL
D. LDL

196. THE APOLIPOPROTEIN PRESENT IN LDL
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO CII
D. APO E

197. THE APO LIPOPROTEIN NOT PRESENT IN CHYLOMICRON IS ….
A. APO B100
B. APO B48
C. APO E
D. APO CII

198. ABETALIPOPROTEINEMIA IS AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE CONDITION WHICH OCCURS DUE TO DEFECT IN APOB48 AND APO B100. THE TREATMENT OF THIS CONDITION IS …
A. VIT E
B. RESTRICTION OF MEDIUM CHAIN FATTY ACIDS
C. ANTIBIOTICS
D. ALL

199. THERE IS NO INCREASED  RISK OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS IN ONE OF THE FOLLOWING FAMILIAL  DYSLIPIDEMIA . THIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH DEFICIENCY OF APO CII APO LIPOPROTEIN IN THIS DISORDER.
A. TYPE 1 HYPERCHYLOMICRONEMIA
B. TYPE 2 FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA
C. TYPE 3 DYSBETALIPOPROTEINEMIA
D. TYPE 4 HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA

200. THE EXTENSOR OF HIP IS SUPPLIED BY ……
A. INFERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
B. SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE
C. OBTURATOR NERVE
D. FEMORAL NERVE


201. FALSE IN COCHLEA IS
A. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE MORE ABUNDANT THAN INNER HAIR CELLS.
B. INNER HAIR CELLS ARE RESISTANT TO TOXIC DRUGS AND NOISE THAN OUTER HAIR CELLS
C. OUTER HAIR CELLS ARE PRIMARILY EFFERENT AND INNER HAIR CELLS ARE AFFERENT
D. OUTER HAIR CELLS TRANSMIT AUDITORY STIMULI


202. FALSE IS
A. LABYRINTHINE ARTERY IS A BRANCH OF AICA
B. THERE IS NO CROSS CIRCULATION BETWEEN MIDDLE EAR AND INNER EAR BLOOD SUPPLY.
C. THE BLOOD SUPPLY TO INNER EAR IS SEGMENTAL SUCH THAT ISCHEMIC LESION CAN AFFECT VESTIBULAR AND COCHLEAR SYSTEM IN ISOLATION.
D. ALL FALSE

203. CADAVERIC  POSITION OF VOCAL CORD IS ….
A. MEDIAN
B INTERMEDIATE
C. PARAMEDIAN
D. FULL ABDUCTED

204. AMOUNT OF FIXATIVE FOR TISSUE FIXATION IS
A. 10 TIMES
B. 20 TIMES
C. SAME VOLUME AS TISSUE
D. 40 TIMES

205. THE MOST RELIABLE BACTERIAL  INDICATOR OF WATER POLLUTION IS ….
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS

206. THE BACTERIAL INDICATING THE RECENT CONTAMINATION OF WATER .
A. COLIFORMS
B. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGES
C. FECAL STREPTOCOCCUS
D. ENTEROCOCCUS

207. KYOTO PROTOCOL IS RELATED TO …..
A. GLOBAL WARMING
B. ECONOMIC CRISIS
C. DISASTER MANAGEMENT
D. EPIDEMICS MANAGEMENT

208. BEST INDICATOR OF AIR POLLUTION
A. SO2
B CO
C. CO2
D. METHANE

209. THE LONGEST EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLE IS
A. SR
B. SO
C. IR
D. LR

210. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INSECT REPELLANT ?
A. THIAMINE
B. RIBOFLAVIN
C. VIT E
D. VIT C


211. A CLINICIAN PERFORMS TRENDELENBERG TEST ON A PATIENT, AND HE FOUND  THAT THE PATIENT’S  PELVIS SWAYED OR DROOPED ON THE RIGHT SIDE WHILE ATTEMPTING TO RAISE THE RIGHT SIDED PELVIS . THIS SUGGESTS THE CLINICIAN  THAT
A. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS  ARE PARALYZED ON THE RIGHT SIDE .
B. GLUTEUS MEDIUS AND GLUTEUS MINIMUS  ARE PARALYZED ON LEFT THE LEFT SIDE.
C. THE RIGHT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED
D. THE LEFT SIDED GLUTEUS MAXIMUS IS PARALYZED.

212. THE MAXIMUM CONTRIBUTION TO GREEN HOUSE GASES IS BY
A. CO2
B. WATER VAPOR
C. CO
D SO2

213. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IS BRANCH OF ……
A. INTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
B. DEEP EXTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. EXTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
D. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY

214. THE VAGINAL ARTERY IN FEMALE REPLACES ……….ARTERY OF MALE ?
A. INFERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
B. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. SUPERIOR VESICAL ARTERY
D. INFERIOR GLUTEAL ARTERY

215. BONY PERFORATION OF NASAL SEPTUM IS A FEATURE OF ….
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. LUPUS VULGARIS
D. SARCOIDOSIS

216. TOTAL NASAL SEPTAL DESTRUCTION IS SEEN IN ………
A. SYPHILIS
B. SLE
C. WERNER’S GRANULOMATOSIS
D. TB

217. AUDITORY FATIGUE OCCURS AT ….
A. 90 DB
B. 70 DB
C 120DB
D 160 DB

218. THE ANAESTHETIC AGENT MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR  GREEN HOUSE GASES IS ………..
A. DESFLURANE
B. ENFLURANE
C. METHOXYFLURANE
D. ISOFLURANE

219. THE FASTEST ONSET OF ACTION AMONG THE FOLLOWING  IS WITH ……….
A. DESFLURANE
B. SEVOFLURANE
C. ISOFLURANE
D. ENFLURANE



220. ANAESTHETIC AGENT ASSOCIATED WITH POSTOPERATIVE CHEST TIGHTNESS ?
A. PROPOFOL
B. FENTANYL
C. THIOPENTONE
D. KETAMINE

221. TRUE IS
A. B CELL SELECTION IS ORCHESTRATED  IN THYMUS
B. T CELL UNDERGO NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMIC CORTEX
C. T CELLS UNDERGO BOTH POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE SELECTION IN THYMUS.
D. THYMIC MEDULLA SERVES TO POSITIVE SELECTION OF T CELLS.

222. THE ACUTE PHASE REACTANT THAT DECREASES IN SERUM CONCENTRATION IS RESPONSE TO  INFLAMMATION ?
A. TRANSFERRIN
B. HEPCIDIN
C. FERRITIN
D. CRP

223. THE SPECIFIC COMPLEMENT ASSOCIATED WITH NEISSERIA GONORRHOEA INFECTION ?
A. C3
B. C1
C. C2
D. C5






224. THE ANTI INFLAMMATORY CYTOKINE IS….
A. INTERLEUKIN 10
B. INTERLEUKIN 2
C. INTERLEUKIN 6
D. INTERLEUKIN 4

225. FEBRILE NON HEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION IS ……HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION ?
A. TYPE 1
B. TYPE 2
C. TYPE 3
D. TYPE 4

226. The pore size in a bed net should be …..
A. 0.0475 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 0.2 inch
D. 0.002 inch

227. The muscle occupying the greater sciatic foramen  is ……
A. Pyriformis
B. Gemelli
C. Gluteus Maximus
D. Obturator internus

228. The muscle occupying the lesser sciatic foramen is ….
A. Pyriformis
B. Obturator internus
C. Gemelli
D. None

229. One of the following structure doesn’t pass through lesser sciatic foramen ?
A. Obturator internus muscle
B. Internal pudendal vessels
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Gemelli

230. Narrowest part in middle ear cavity is
A. Epitympanum or attic
B. Mesotympanum
C. Hypotympanum

231. Crippling fluorosis is highly likely when fluoride concentration in drinking water exceeds ……..ppm.
A. 10
B. 6
C. 15
D. 2

232. Temporary hardness of water is due to ….
A. Bicarbonate salts
B. Sulphate and chlorides
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Hydroxides

233 True about iron deficiency anemia ?
A. TIBC increases
B. Transferrin increases
C. A and B
D. MCV increases






234. The enteroviral encephalitis is primarily seen in ……..
A. B cell deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Complement deficiency

235. A T cell disorder associated with conotruncal defects, Tetany, and recurrent fungal and viral  infections is suggestive of …….
A. Di George syndrome
B. Job syndrome
C. Hyper IgM syndrome
D. Wiskot Aldrich syndrome

236. Cold staphylococcal abscesses are often seen in …..
A. Autosomal dominant hyper IgE syndrome
B. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
C. Complement deficiency
D. Chronic granulomatous disease

237. Increased susceptibility to giardiasis is more often seen in ………
A. Complement deficiency
B. T cell deficiency
C. IgA deficiency
D. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

238. Condition specific to transplant rejection in liver is ………
A. Vanishing bile duct syndrome
B. Portal vein thrombosis
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Jaundice



239. False  about immunosuppressant is ……
A. Sirolimus is not nephrotoxic .
B. Tacrolimus doesn’t cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism.
C. Mycophenolate mofetil is irreversible inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase.
D. Azathiopurine and allopurinol combination is an irrationals combination of treatment

240. Monoclonal Antibody used in refractory allergic asthma is
A. Omalizumab
B. Palivizumab
C. Abciximab
D. Eculizumab

241. Hook effect is seen in
A. Brucellosis
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Tularemia

242. Prozone phenomena results in false negative result owing to
A. Antigen is present in excess of antibody
B. Antibody is present in excess of antigens
C. Antigen and antibody are present in equal proportions
D. Antigen antibody interactions disturbed by the complements

243. Milk ring test is related to ….
A. Brucellosis
B. Tb
C. Salmonella
D. Bacteroides

244. R. Q of carbohydrate is ……
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 2

245. Commonest malignancy of eyelid is ….
A. Squamous cell ca
B. Nasal cell ca
C. Melanoma
D. Sarcoma

246. The lacrimal glands receive the innervation for lacrimation from ……
A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

247. Average number of mites present on the body of a person suffering from scabies is ..
A. 5 -10
B. 10 -15
C. 15 -20
D. 50 -60

248. Cigar shaped eggs are seen in
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonia



249. Diabetes mellitus is not seen in ….
A. Friedrich ataxia
B. Ataxia telengiectasia
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Hemochromatosis

250. The tensor tympani attaches to ……
A. Neck of malleus
B. Handle of malleus
C. Head of stapes
D. Head of malleus

251. Part that doesn’t define incus is …..
A. Head
B. Body
C. Long process
D. Short process

252. Branch from first part of axillary artery ?
A. Superior thoracic artery
B. Lateral thoracic artery
C. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
D. Posterior circumflex humoral artery

253. Posterior fold of axillary is formed by all except
A. Lattismus dorsi
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres major
D. Pectoralis major

254. One of the following structures don’t pierce clavipectoral fascia ….
A. Thoracoaromial vessels
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Lateral pectoral nerve
D. Cephalic vein

255.Popliteal fossa is bounded laterally by ………
A. Biceps femori
B. Semimembranosus
C. Gracilis
D. Semitendinosus

256. Cubital fossa is bounded medially by …….
A. Pronator teres
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Brachialis

257. Supinator is pierced by …..
A. Anterior interosseous nerve
B. Posterior interosseous nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve

258. Live nonattenuated vaccine is …..
A. Adenovirus vaccine
B. Oral Ty21A
C. BCG
D. 17 D






259. False regarding Botulism in infants  is ……
A.  Performed toxin ingestion is responsible
B. Commonly seen with honey consumption
C. Causes floppy baby syndrome
D. The  toxins implicated are heat labile


260. Gastric gland secretions increased primarily via
A. M1 receptor
B. M2 receptor
C. M3 receptor
D. Beta 3 receptor

261.  Lipid soluble beta blocker is
A. Propranolol
B. Sotalol
C. Atenolol
D. Bisoprolol

262. The beta blocker with more first pass metabolism ?
A. Atenolol
B. Bisoprolol
C. Sotalol
D. Metoprolol

263. Epidemic typhus is caused by ……….
A. R. Prowazekii
B. Ricketsia typhi
C. Ricketsia ricketsia
D. Ricketsia conori



264. Pneumoconiosis takes …….years of occupational exposure .
A. 10 yrs
B. 5 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 8 yrs

265. Value of normal TIBC is ….
A. 200 mcgdl
B. 300mcgdl
C. 400 mcgdl
D. 150mcgdl

266 Residual  chlorine required in swimming pool water is ……
A. 1ppm
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.4ppm

277 Residual chlorine required in daily water use in post disaster period is …
A. 1ppm
B. 2ppm
C. 0.7ppm
D. 0.5 ppm

278 Monday fever is seen in  ………
A. Bagassosis
B. Bysinnosis
C. Silicosis
D. Asbestosis


279 Ratio of Rods to cones in retina is …..
A. 20 :1
B. 30:1
C. 10:1
D. 40:1

280. Muller cell is found in …..
A. Retina
B. Pancreas
C. Knee joint
D. Inner ear



281 All cells in cerebellum are inhibitory in nature except for
A. Granule cell to purkinje cell
B. Basket cell to purkinje cell
C. Granule cell
D. Purkinje cell to basket cell

282 Gait ataxia in alchoholics is seen due to damage in …..
A. Anterior vermis of cerebellum
B. Posterior vermis of cerebellum
C. Lateral cerebellum
D. Flocconodular lobe

283 coronory sinus is derived from …
A. Left horn of sinus venosus
B. Right horn of sinus venosus
C. Right common cardinal vein
D. Right anterior cardinal vein



284. Tree bark appearance of aorta is seen in …….
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Syphilis
C. Ehler Danlos syndrome
D. Aortic aneurysms rupture



286. Traumatic rupture of aorta is most common at ……
A. Distal to left subclavian artery origin
B. Ascending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Proximal to left subclavian artery origin


287. The automaticity of SA nodal cells depend on …….of action potential?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 4
D. Phase 2 and 3

288. The depolarization in SA node is due to ……
A. Voltage gated calcium channel
B. Voltage gated sodium channel
C. Voltage gated potassium channel
D.  Both sodium and calcium channels

289. The maximum oxygen consumption in heart is during …
A. Isovolumetric relaxation
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Rapid Ejection
D. Ventricular filling

290. Which hypolipidemic drug may increase triglycerides ?
A. Gemfifrozil
B. Ezetimibe
C. Atorvastatin
D. Bile acid resins

291. Chromaffin cells in adrenal gland are stimulated by
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic
C. Postganglionic sympathetic
D. Postganglionic parasympathetic

292 ADH regulates blood pressure via
A. V1 receptor via cAMP
B. V2 receptor via IP3
C. V1 receptor via IP3
D. V2 receptor via cAMP

293. True in Severe magnesium deficiency …….
A. Decreases PTH secretion
B. Increases PTH secretion
C. Effect on PTH level  similar to hypocalcemia
D. None

294.  Antimicrosomal antibodies are associated with
A. PBC
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
C. polymyositis
D. Sjogren syndrome



295. Cinalcet is a ……
A. Calcium sensitizer
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Calcitonin antagonist
D. PTH analogue

296. True in hyperthyroidism(thyrotoxicosis) is …
A. Proximal myopathy with raised CK level
B. Distal myopathy with normal CK level
C. Proximal myopathy with normal CK level
D. Distal  myopathy with raised CK level

297. Most common karyotype in complete mole is
A. 46xx
B. 46xy
C. 69xy
D. 69xx

298. The antiepileptic drug causing renal stones ?
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin

299. The drug metyrapone  is used in diagnosing
A. Primary Adrenal insufficiency
B.  SIADH
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Hyperaldosteronism

300. Which is not a risk factor in prinzmetal angina?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Hypertension
C. Smoking
D. A and B

301. Pupillomotor fibres are carried via Occulomotor nerve via
A. Nerve to inferior oblique
B. Nerve to superior oblique
C. Nerve to inferior rectus
D. Nerve to medial rectus

302. Recurrence rate of febrile seizure is …
A. 1 pc
B. 30 pc
C. 5 pc
D. 70 pc

303. Philip criteria used in
A. Neonatal sepsis
B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
C. Congenital heart disease
D. Delayed developmental milestones

304 Vitelline duct obliterates by
A. 7 wk
B. 12 wk
C. 4 wk
D. 20 wk

305  Most common infection in renal transplant patients ?
A. CMV
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candida
D. Cryptococcus

306 Granuloma is not a feature ?
A. Takayashu arteritis
B. Microscopic polyangiitis
C. Wegner granulomatosis
D. Churg Strauss syndrome

307. Wegners granulomatosis can be differentiated from microscopic polyangiitis in all except
A. cANCA  positivity
B. Nasopharyngeal involvement
C. Granuloma
D. Small vessel vasculitis

308.  One of the following condition is associated with exposure to macrolides ….
A. Hirschprung disease
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Tracheoesophageal atresia
D. None

309. Main pancreatic duct is formed by
A. Dorsal pancreatic bud
B. Ventral pancreatic bud
C. Both
D. Neural crest cell

310. Gastrosplenic ligament contains …
A. Right gastriepiploic vessels
B. Left gastroepiploic vessels
C. Splenic vessels
D. Left gastric artery

311 Pectinate  Line is formed where
A. Ectoderm meets mesoderm
B. Ectoderm meets endoderm
C. Mesoderm meets endoderm
D. Endoderm meets endoderm

312 The Auerbach plexus in GI tract  is situated
A. Superficial to longitudinal layer of muscle
B. Deep to circular layer of muscle
C. Between outer longitudinal and inner circular muscle layer
D. Submucosa layer

313 True is
A. More incidence of kidney stones in crohn disease than UC
B. Antisaccharomyces ab more common in UC
C. Noncaseating granuloma seen in UC
D. Rectum is spared in UC

314 The investigation of choice for colorectal Ca screening is
A. Colonoscopy
B. Fecal occult blood
C. Fecal immunochemical testing
D. CEA

315 spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed if ascetic fluid
A. ANC >125 cells/cumm
B. ANC >250cells /cumm
C. ANC >300cells/cumm
D. ANC > 350cells /cumm

316 Ground glass hepatocytes are seen in
A. Hep A
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E

317 The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis on the characteristic clinical feature is highly suggestive if serum amylase level …..
A. More than 2 Times normal  upper limit
B. More than 3 Times normal upper limit
C. More than 4 Times normal upper limit
D. More than 1.5 Times normal upper limit

318 True is …..
A. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor irreversibly.
B. Pantoprazole blocks H K ATPase irreversibly
C. Ranitidine blocks histamine receptor reversibly
D. B and C

319 The true statement is
A. Sulfasalazine causes  irreversible oligospermia
B. NSAIDS may be chemopreventive in colorectal carcinoma
C. Enteropathic arthritis and IBD have temporal relationship in appearance.
D. Right sided colorectal carcinoma often presents with obstructing symptoms

320 All are false statement except
A. Gastrin promotes the gastric mucosa growth
B. Octreotide  decreases  cholelithiasis
C. Secretin stimulates the release  of gastrin.
D. Gastrin release is not stimulated by histamine

321 congenital hypertrophy of pigment epithelium is seen in ….
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP

322 Brain tumors are commonly seen  with
A. Peutz Jegher syndrome
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Turcot syndrome
D. FAP

323 True statement in hypervitaminosis D is ….
A. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 more , serum ALP more
B. Serum Ca less, serum PO4 more, serum ALP more
C. Serum Ca more , serum PO4 less, serum ALP more
D. Serum Ca and serum PO4 more

324. Steven Johnson syndrome involves
A. At least 1 mucous membranes
B. At least 2 mucous membranes
C. At least 3 mucous membranes
D. Mucous membranes not involved at all

325. The  pathology in pemphigus vulgaris is in …..
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum

326 False in blood brain barrier formation is
A. Fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
B. Basement membrane
C. Astrocyte foot process
D. None

327 Trochoid joint is …
A. Elbow joint
B. Atlantoaxial joint
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Knee joint

328 The primary brain tumor associated with precocious puberty ?
A. Pinealoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Astrocytoma

329 Adrenoleukodystrophy is due to the defect in metabolism of
A. Very long chain FA
B. Short chain FA
C. Carbohydrate
D. Aminoacid

330 Early onset glaucoma is typically seen in
A. Sturge Weber syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Von Hippel lindau syndrome

331 Ex vacuo ventriculomegaly is seen in
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Postmeningitis
C. Pseudotumor cerebri
D. Rheumatic fever

332 All are true in GBS except
A. Steroid improves the recovery
B. Destruction of Schwann cells is a typical feature
C. Normal cell count in CSF analysis
D. An example of molecular mimicry

333 False in aphasia is …
A. Repetition intact in Broca’s aphasia
B. Insight is present in Wernicke aphasia
C. Comprehension is intact in Wernicke aphasia

D. All

334 The modified sweat gland is  ?
A. Meibomian gland
B. Gland of Moll
C. Zeis gland
D. All

335 Norepinephrine in brain is synthesized in
A. Locus cereleus
B. Raphe nucleus
C. Nucleus accumbens
D. Substantial nigra

336 The longest duration in sleep cycle  is
A. REM
B. NREM1
C. NREM2
D. NREM3

337 The aqueous humor is produced by
A. Pigmented epithelium of ciliary body
B. Nonpigmented epithelium of ciliary body
C. Iris
D. Trabecular meshwork

338 One of the following drug is a central COMT inhibitor ?
A. Tolcapone
B. Entacapone
C. Selegiline
D. Amantadine
339 Anticholinergic don’t have role in improving …….……..in Parkinsonism.
A. Rigidity
B. Tremor
C. Bradykinesia
D. A and B

340 The antiepileptic drug associated with Steven Johnson syndrome
A. Lamotrigine
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. All

341 The antiepileptic drug associated with SIADH ..
A. Carbamazepine
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Lamotrigine

342 The antiepileptic drug  with glaucoma as a side effect
A. Topiramate
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Vigabatrin

343 The antiepileptic with personality change as a side effect
A. Lamotrigine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Levatiracetam
D. Phenytoin




344 The ovary size in PCOS in ultrasound imaging is ……….cc.
A. >10
B. >5
C. >20
D. <10

345 The longest duration of action in antidiabetic is …….
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Metformin
C. Nateglinide
D. Glimepride

346 The shortest duration of action in antidiabetic is ……
A. Tolbutamide
B. Glipizide
C. Nateglinide
D. Metformin

347 The antidiabetic drug with Renal excretion is ……..
A. Tolbutamide
B. Chlorpropamide
C. Metformin
D. B and C

348 Danazol is used in
A. Menorrhagia
B. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
C. Endometriosis
D. All

349 A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is to be started on the CHOPregimen, which consists of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone. Which one of the following agents is most likely to be protectiveagainst the toxicity of doxorubicin?
A. Amifostine
B. . Dexrazoxane
C. Leucovorin
D. Mesna

350. Sjogren syndrome has primarily deficiency in……….
A. Aqueous layer of tear
B. Mucus layer of tear
C. Lipid layer of tear
D. All layers

351 The crescent shaped gametocytes seen in blood film in ….
A. P vivax
B. P malaria
C. P ovale
D. P falciparum

352 Non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis is more often associated with …………..of lung.
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Squamous cell ca
D. Large cell ca

353 The most common nerve injured disputing laparoscopic hernia repair is
A. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
B. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Ilioinguinal nerve
D. Iliohypogastric nerve

354 Gynecomastia is associated more commonly with …………of lung.
A. Small cell ca
B. Large cell ca
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

355 The global demineralization is apparent on X-rays when bone density loss exceeds ……
A. 30 pc
B. 50 pc
C. 15 pc.
D. 70 pc

356 The drug of choice in bacillary angiomatosis is ……
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ketoconazole

357 The diagnosis of metabolic syndrome doesn’t consider …….
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Blood pressure
D. Fasting glucose

358 The most common finding in paget disease of bone is
A. Bone pain and hearing loss
B. Asymptomatic
C. Entrapment neuropathy
D. Increasing size of hat

359 The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Parathyroid carcinoma
D. Pituitary tumor

360 The most common cause of hyperaldosteronism ?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal carcinoma
D. Adrenal insufficiency

361 The test not used as test of cure in H pylori ?
A. Fecal antigen test
B. Urea breath test
C. Serological test
D. Urease test

362 The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is
A. Alcohol
B. Gallstones
C. Drugs
D. Hypertriglyceridemia

363 The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is …
A. Alcohol
B. Drugs
C. Gallstones
D. Trauma

364 The gallstone ileus risk may be seen with the size of gall stone greater than
A. 2.5 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 3.5 cm

365 The hummingbird sign is seen in
A. Parkinsonism
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Progressive supranuclear palsy
D. Pinealoma

366 The hypoechoic lesion is seen in USG liver with metastasis of …..
A. Colon
B. RCC
C. Thyroid ca
D. Breast ca

367 A microbiology student cultured a specimen for isolation of an organism. He found that the bacteria  grew as metallic green shin colonies in eosin methylene blue agar. Name the most probable organism ?
A. Klebsiella
B. E. coli
C. Enterobacter
D. Serratia

368 Not an encapsulated organism ?
A. N. Meningitidis
B. Salmonella
C. N. Gonorrhoea
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa





369 All are true in bacterial vaginosis except …..
A. Clue cells are characteristic feature
B. Fishy smell grayish vaginal discharge
C. Not sexually transmitted
D. Increased leukocytes in the discharge

All are true in salmonella typhi except
A. The humans are reservoirs
B. Hematogenous spread is very rare
C. The monocytic response is primarily seen.
D.  Fecooral transmission

371 The palms and soles are spared in …
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Coxsackie virus A infection
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Secondary syphilis

372 The rash starts typically from wrist and ankles in …..
A. Measles
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Endemic typhus

373 All are true in congenital syphilis except
A. Long maxilla
B. Saber shins
C. Mulberry molars
D. Saddle nose

374 No rash and no vector is in
A. Ehrlicosis
B. Q fever
C. Chicken pox
D. Hand foot mouth disease

375 The rickettsiae that can be cultured is …..
a. Ricketsia Quintana
b. Ricketsia prowazeki
c. Ricketsia typhi
d. Ricketsia ricketsia

376 The dimorphic fungi not living as an yeast in the human tissue ……
A. Coccioidiodes
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Cryptocccus neoformans

377 Desert rheumatism in mycoses is a feature of ………
A. Coccidioides
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Blastomycosis

378 The parasitic infestation with periorbital edema, myalgias is ………
A. Trichinella
B. Echinococcus
C. Taenia solium
D. Strongyloides

379 The parasite causing dimorphic anemia …..
a. Anclyostoma
b. Round worm
c. Trichuris
d. Enterobius

380 The parasite causing pulmonary hypertension is
A. Schistosomiasis hematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Schistosoma japonicum

381 The hepatitis B is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Both
D. Lichen planus

382 The hepatitis C is associated with ….
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Porphyria cutanea tarda
D. None

383 The macrovesicular steatosis is seen in ……..
A. HepA
B. Hep B
C. Hep C
D. Hep E

384 Not an enveloped virus
A. Hep A
B. HepB
C. Hep C
D. Hep D

385 Ebola virus is …
A. Filo virus
B. Flavi virus
C. Hepadna virus
D. Herpes virus

386 About  Zika virus , false statement  is ……
A. Is a flavi virus
B. Causes miscarriages and congenital microcephay
C. Transmitted by Aedes mosquito
D. No sexual transmission

387 Transmitted by ixodes tick …
A. Lyme disease
B. Babesiosis
C. Anaplasmosis
D. All

388 Disease transmitted by Reduviid bug …..
A. Chagas’ disease
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever






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